Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is planning to administer several medications to a client through an NG tube. Which actions should the nurse take?

• A. Dissolve crushed tablet medications in tap water
• B. Use 30-40 mL of sterile water for each medication
• C. Dissolve crushed tablet medications in sterile water
• D. Administer medications without dissolving

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications through an NG tube is to dissolve crushed tablet medications in 15-30 mL of sterile water. This ensures proper delivery through the NG tube and reduces the risk of clogging. Choice A is incorrect because tap water may contain impurities that can cause complications. Choice B suggests using a higher volume of sterile water than necessary, which may lead to dilution of the medications. Choice D is incorrect as medications should be dissolved to prevent blockages in the NG tube.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has been experiencing repeated tonic-clonic seizures over the course of 30 min. After maintaining the client’s airway and turning the client on their side, which of the following medications should the nurse administer?

• A. Diazepam IV
• B. Lorazepam PO
• C. Diltiazem IV
• D. Clonazepam PO

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario of a client experiencing prolonged seizures, such as status epilepticus, the priority is to administer a benzodiazepine to stop the seizure activity. Diazepam is the medication of choice for this situation due to its rapid onset of action and effectiveness in terminating seizures quickly. Lorazepam, although another benzodiazepine, is typically given through routes other than oral (PO) administration in emergency situations. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker used for cardiac conditions, not for seizure management. Clonazepam is a benzodiazepine, but it is usually not the first choice in the acute management of status epilepticus.

3. A client has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following should the nurse educate the client about?

• A. It can cause weight gain
• B. It should be taken with meals
• C. It is an injectable medication
• D. It can cause hypoglycemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It should be taken with meals.' Metformin should be taken with meals to minimize gastrointestinal side effects and improve absorption. Choice A is incorrect because metformin is actually associated with weight loss or weight neutrality. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is typically taken orally and not via injection. Choice D is also incorrect because metformin is not known to cause hypoglycemia as a primary side effect.

4. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Obtain the client's consent
• B. Verify the blood type and crossmatch
• C. Take baseline vital signs
• D. Prime the IV with normal saline

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action the nurse should take when preparing to administer a blood transfusion is to verify the blood type and crossmatch. This step is crucial to ensure compatibility and prevent transfusion reactions. Obtaining the client's consent is important but should follow the verification process. Taking baseline vital signs is necessary before starting the transfusion, but confirming compatibility takes precedence. Priming the IV with normal saline is a step done before starting the transfusion, after ensuring blood compatibility.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who has been receiving oxytocin IV for labor augmentation. The client's contractions are occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Decrease the oxytocin infusion
• B. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion
• C. Increase the IV fluid rate
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue the oxytocin infusion. The client is experiencing uterine hyperstimulation, as evidenced by contractions occurring every 2 minutes and lasting 90 seconds. Discontinuing the oxytocin is crucial to prevent fetal distress and uterine rupture. Increasing the IV fluid rate would not address the uterine hyperstimulation caused by oxytocin. Applying an internal fetal monitor is not the priority at this moment; first, the oxytocin infusion needs to be stopped to manage the uterine hyperstimulation effectively.

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