a nurse is planning to administer several medications to a client through an ng tube which actions should the nurse take
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Fundamentals Quiz

1. A nurse is planning to administer several medications to a client through an NG tube. Which actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when administering medications through an NG tube is to dissolve crushed tablet medications in 15-30 mL of sterile water. This ensures proper delivery through the NG tube and reduces the risk of clogging. Choice A is incorrect because tap water may contain impurities that can cause complications. Choice B suggests using a higher volume of sterile water than necessary, which may lead to dilution of the medications. Choice D is incorrect as medications should be dissolved to prevent blockages in the NG tube.

2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of omeprazole. Which of the following should be included?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that can mask symptoms of gastrointestinal bleeding; clients should be monitored for this. Choices A and B are incorrect because omeprazole is usually taken before meals, and while it is important to avoid NSAIDs if possible due to their effects on the stomach, it is not directly related to omeprazole use. Choice D is also incorrect as omeprazole is not typically associated with causing drowsiness.

3. A client has been prescribed ferrous sulfate. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed ferrous sulfate is to take it with fluids other than coffee or tea. Coffee and tea can inhibit iron absorption. Therefore, choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Avoiding strawberries, citrus fruits, and melon is not necessary for improving absorption of ferrous sulfate, taking it on a full stomach is not recommended, and doubling the dose if a dose is missed can lead to an overdose.

4. A client has been prescribed albuterol. Which of the following is a priority adverse effect the nurse should monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Albuterol, a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, can lead to tachycardia due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors in the heart. Monitoring for tachycardia is crucial as it can be a sign of excessive sympathetic stimulation and may lead to severe complications. Bradycardia, dizziness, and hypertension are less likely adverse effects of albuterol, making them lower priority for monitoring in this context.

5. A client with a closed head injury has their eyes open when pressure is applied to the nail beds, and they exhibit adduction of the arms with flexion of the elbows and wrists. The client also moans with stimulation. What is the client's Glasgow Coma Score?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The client's Glasgow Coma Score is 7. This is calculated by assigning 2 points for eye-opening to pain, 2 points for incomprehensible sounds, and 3 points for flexion posturing. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Choice A (4) would be the score if the client displayed decerebrate posturing instead of flexion posturing. Choice C (9) would be the score if the client exhibited eye-opening to speech, confused speech, and decorticate posturing. Choice D (10) would be the score if the client showed eye-opening spontaneously, oriented speech, and obeyed commands, which is not the case here.

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