Nursing Elites

1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
• B. A sliced apple and red grapes
• C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
• D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of atrial fibrillation and is receiving warfarin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the warfarin?

• A. Platelet count
• B. International normalized ratio (INR)
• C. Bleeding time
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is used to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. A higher INR indicates a longer time it takes for the blood to clot, which is desirable in patients receiving warfarin to prevent blood clots. Platelet count (Choice A) assesses the number of platelets in the blood and is not directly related to warfarin therapy. Bleeding time (Choice C) evaluates the time it takes for a person to stop bleeding after a standardized wound, but it is not specific to monitoring warfarin effectiveness. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) (Choice D) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

3. A client prescribed allopurinol for gout is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following should be included in the teaching?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.
• C. Avoid foods high in purines.
• D. Increase your dietary intake of calcium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Drink at least 2 liters of water per day.' Clients taking allopurinol should be instructed to drink plenty of water to prevent kidney stones, a potential side effect of the medication. Option A is incorrect because allopurinol is usually taken without regard to meals. Option C is not directly related to the teaching about allopurinol, as it pertains more to dietary management of gout. Option D is also unrelated to allopurinol use for gout.

4. A nurse is caring for a client with congestive heart failure. Which of the following prescriptions should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Call the provider if the respiratory rate is less than 18/min
• B. Administer a 500 mL IV bolus of 0.9% sodium chloride over 1 hour
• C. Administer enalapril 2.5 mg PO twice daily
• D. Call the provider if the client’s pulse rate is less than 80/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, is commonly prescribed to manage hypertension and heart failure. It helps reduce the workload on the heart and prevent fluid retention. Options A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A focuses on a respiratory rate, which is not specific to heart failure management. Option B suggests administering a large IV bolus of fluid, which can worsen heart failure by increasing fluid volume. Option D addresses the pulse rate, which is not a typical parameter to monitor for heart failure specifically.

5. A nurse is caring for a client who is hyperventilating and has the following ABG results: pH 7.50, PaCO2 29 mm Hg, and HCO3- 25 mEq/L. The nurse should recognize that the client has which of the following acid-base imbalances?

• A. Respiratory acidosis
• B. Respiratory alkalosis
• C. Metabolic acidosis
• D. Metabolic alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Respiratory alkalosis. In this scenario, the client is hyperventilating, leading to excessive elimination of carbon dioxide. As a result, the PaCO2 decreases, causing a decrease in hydrogen ion concentration and an increase in pH, resulting in respiratory alkalosis. Choice A, Respiratory acidosis, is incorrect because the ABG results show a low PaCO2, not an elevated one. Choices C and D, Metabolic acidosis and Metabolic alkalosis, do not align with the ABG results provided, which point towards a respiratory, not metabolic, imbalance.

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