ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
- B. A sliced apple and red grapes
- C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
- D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.
2. A client with Ménière’s disease is experiencing episodes of vertigo. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Encourage bed rest
- B. Restrict fluid intake to the morning hours
- C. Administer aspirin
- D. Provide a low sodium diet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Ménière’s disease experiencing vertigo is to provide a low sodium diet. Limiting sodium helps to reduce fluid retention, which in turn decreases the manifestations of Ménière’s disease. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may be necessary during acute episodes but is not a long-term solution. Restricting fluid intake (Choice B) to the morning hours does not specifically address the underlying issue of fluid retention associated with Ménière’s disease. Administering aspirin (Choice C) is not recommended for Ménière’s disease as it can worsen symptoms.
3. A nurse is administering a blood transfusion to a client and suspects that the client is having an adverse reaction to the blood. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
- A. Maintain IV access
- B. Obtain the client’s vital signs
- C. Contact the provider
- D. Stop the transfusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to stop the transfusion. When a nurse suspects an adverse reaction to a blood transfusion, the priority is to stop the infusion immediately to prevent further harm to the client. Maintaining IV access and obtaining vital signs can be important steps but should come after stopping the transfusion to ensure the client's safety. Contacting the provider is necessary but not the first action to take in this situation. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize stopping the transfusion to address the potential adverse reaction.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently.
- B. Apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg.
- C. Massage the affected leg.
- D. Place the client in a supine position.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is to apply warm, moist compresses to the affected leg. This helps alleviate pain and improve circulation in the affected area, aiding in the treatment of DVT. Encouraging the client to ambulate frequently (Choice A) is contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and lead to complications. Massaging the affected leg (Choice C) is also contraindicated as it can dislodge the clot and potentially cause an embolism. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for DVT treatment; elevation of the affected leg is preferred over placing the client completely supine.
5. A client has been prescribed raloxiphene. As the nurse, you know that raloxiphene is used to treat:
- A. Migraines
- B. Hypertension
- C. Osteoporosis
- D. Heart disease
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Raloxiphene (Evista) is a selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM) used primarily to prevent and treat osteoporosis in postmenopausal women. It helps to maintain bone density and reduce the risk of fractures by mimicking the effects of estrogen on bone tissue. It is not indicated for the treatment of migraines, hypertension, or heart disease. Therefore, the correct answer is osteoporosis (Choice C). Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as raloxiphene is not used to treat migraines, hypertension, or heart disease.
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