a nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria which of the following suggested foods should
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

2. A client newly diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome is being taught by a nurse. Which statement indicates that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: “I can expect swelling in my hands and on my face.” Nephrotic syndrome leads to increased permeability of the glomeruli, resulting in edema, especially in the face and dependent areas. Choice B is incorrect because nephrotic syndrome leads to protein loss in the urine, not an increase in blood protein levels. Choice C is incorrect as stomach pain and gas are not typical symptoms of nephrotic syndrome. Choice D is unrelated to the teaching about nephrotic syndrome and gum bleeding.

3. A nurse is admitting a client who has tuberculosis and a productive cough. Which of the following types of isolation precautions should the nurse initiate for the client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Airborne. Tuberculosis is spread through small droplets that remain airborne for longer periods, hence requiring airborne precautions. Choice A - Contact precautions are used for diseases spread by direct or indirect contact. Choice B - Droplet precautions are for diseases transmitted by large respiratory droplets that can travel short distances. Choice C - Protective isolation is not necessary for tuberculosis, as it is not spread through contact with the client.

4. A nurse is assessing a client for signs of allergic reaction. Which of the following should the nurse look for?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Correct! When assessing a client for signs of an allergic reaction, a nurse should look for a rash. A rash is a common manifestation of an allergic response, such as contact dermatitis or hives. It is important to recognize and assess rashes promptly as they can indicate an allergic reaction.\nOption A, fever, is not typically a primary sign of an allergic reaction but may occur in severe cases. Option C, fatigue, is a general symptom and not specific to allergic reactions. Option D, increased appetite, is not a common sign of an allergic reaction and is more likely related to other conditions or factors.

5. A client with hepatic encephalopathy is being educated about their diet by a nurse. Which of the following food selections indicates that the client understands the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Rice with black beans. Clients with hepatic encephalopathy should limit protein intake to prevent the buildup of ammonia. Plant-based proteins are preferred over animal-based proteins in this condition. Rice with black beans provides a good balance of nutrients and is a suitable choice for a client with hepatic encephalopathy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they contain animal-based proteins, which should be limited in clients with hepatic encephalopathy.

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