a nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria which of the following suggested foods should
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Nursing Elites

ATI LPN

PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn

1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

2. A nurse is caring for a client recovering from bowel surgery who has a nasogastric (NG) tube connected to low intermittent suction. Which of the following assessment findings should indicate to the nurse that the NG tube may not be functioning properly?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Abdominal rigidity can indicate a serious complication, such as a blockage or infection, requiring immediate intervention to determine if the NG tube is functioning properly. Choices A, B, and D are not indicative of a malfunctioning NG tube. Greenish-yellow drainage fluid may be normal, an aspirate pH of 3 is within the expected range for gastric contents, and air bubbles in the NG tube are not abnormal as long as they are moving.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client with a sealed radiation implant. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should wear a dosimeter badge to monitor radiation exposure when caring for a client with a sealed radiation implant.

4. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.

5. A nurse is performing a focused assessment on a client who has a history of COPD and is experiencing dyspnea. Which of the findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Flaring of the nostrils indicates increased respiratory effort, common in clients with dyspnea due to COPD. In COPD, the airways are narrowed, causing difficulty in breathing, leading to increased work of breathing. Normal respiratory rate and clear lung sounds are less likely findings in a client with COPD experiencing dyspnea. Decreased work of breathing is not expected in this situation as COPD typically results in increased work of breathing.

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