ATI LPN
PN ATI Capstone Maternal Newborn
1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
- B. A sliced apple and red grapes
- C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
- D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.
2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for furosemide. Which client statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will take my morning pills with food or milk.
- B. I will weigh myself every day.
- C. I will notify the nurse if I have muscle cramps.
- D. I will limit my intake of fish.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Furosemide is a diuretic that does not require a reduction in fish consumption. Therefore, the statement 'I will limit my intake of fish' indicates a misunderstanding of dietary considerations. Choices A, B, and C are all appropriate actions related to furosemide therapy. Taking pills with food or milk can help reduce stomach upset, daily weight monitoring is crucial due to the diuretic effect of furosemide, and notifying the nurse about muscle cramps is important as it can be a sign of electrolyte imbalance, a potential side effect of furosemide.
3. A nurse is providing education to a client who is 28 weeks pregnant and at risk for preterm labor. Which of the following signs should the nurse instruct the client to report immediately?
- A. Lower back pain
- B. Shortness of breath
- C. Decreased fetal movement
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lower back pain, especially if accompanied by uterine contractions or pressure, can be a sign of preterm labor. The client should report this immediately to prevent complications or early delivery. Shortness of breath (Choice B), decreased fetal movement (Choice C), and nausea and vomiting (Choice D) can be common during pregnancy but are not typically associated with preterm labor. While they should be monitored, they are not immediate signs of concern for preterm labor.
4. A client is prescribed warfarin for anticoagulation. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. PT and INR
- B. Blood glucose levels
- C. Complete blood count (CBC)
- D. Platelet count
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: PT and INR. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that affects the clotting mechanism by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. The PT (Prothrombin Time) and INR (International Normalized Ratio) are specific laboratory values used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin therapy. These values help healthcare providers adjust the warfarin dosage to maintain the desired level of anticoagulation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood glucose levels, complete blood count (CBC), and platelet count are not directly monitored to assess the effects of warfarin therapy.
5. A healthcare provider is among the first responders to a mass-casualty incident and does not know what type of personal protective equipment (PPE) is needed. Which of the following actions should the healthcare provider take?
- A. Use basic gloves and a mask.
- B. Choose the highest level of protection equipment available.
- C. Use only respiratory protection.
- D. Ask a colleague for advice.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In situations where the type of hazard is unknown, the healthcare provider should choose the highest level of protection equipment available. This helps ensure adequate protection against any potential hazards that may be present. Using only basic gloves and a mask (Choice A) may not provide sufficient protection if the hazard is more severe. Opting for respiratory protection only (Choice C) may leave other areas of the body vulnerable to exposure. While asking a colleague for advice (Choice D) is good practice in general, in urgent situations like mass-casualty incidents with unknown hazards, it is crucial to prioritize immediate protection by selecting the highest level of PPE.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access