Nursing Elites

1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
• B. A sliced apple and red grapes
• C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
• D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

2. A nurse is caring for a newborn in the nursery following a circumcision. The newborn's grandparent, who does not have an identification bracelet, requests to take the newborn to his mother's room. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Notify security.
• B. Respectfully deny the grandparent’s request.
• C. Contact the mother for verification.
• D. Escort the grandparent and newborn to the room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to respectfully deny the grandparent's request. In healthcare settings, strict security protocols are in place to ensure the safety of newborns. Only individuals with proper identification bracelets are allowed to transport newborns to prevent unauthorized individuals from taking them. Contacting the mother for verification would be time-consuming and may not be feasible immediately. Escorting the grandparent and newborn without proper identification would violate security protocols and compromise the newborn's safety. Notifying security should be done only if there is a threat or concern for safety, which is not the case in this scenario. Therefore, the best course of action is for the nurse to respectfully deny the grandparent's request to uphold the safety and security measures in place.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who repeatedly refuses meals. The nurse overhears an assistive personnel telling the client, “If you don’t eat, I’ll put restraints on your wrists and feed you.” The nurse should intervene and explain to the AP that this statement constitutes which of the following torts?

• A. Assault
• B. Battery
• C. Malpractice
• D. Negligence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault is the act of threatening a client with harm, such as the threat of using restraints to force-feed the client, even if no physical contact occurs. In this scenario, the statement made by the assistive personnel constitutes assault because it involves the threat of harm. Choice B, Battery, involves actual physical contact without the client's consent, which is not present in the scenario. Choice C, Malpractice, refers to professional negligence or misconduct, not a direct threat to the client. Choice D, Negligence, involves failure to provide reasonable care that results in harm, which is not applicable in this context.

4. A client has been prescribed trazodone. Which of the following should be monitored?

• A. Blood glucose levels
• B. Liver function
• C. Mood changes
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Correct. Trazodone is an antidepressant that can impact mood and behavior. Monitoring for changes in mood or behavior is crucial to assess the effectiveness and potential side effects of the medication. Monitoring blood glucose levels is not typically associated with trazodone use. While trazodone can affect liver function in some cases, monitoring liver function is not the primary concern compared to assessing mood changes. Trazodone can cause changes in heart rate in some patients, but the priority monitoring in this case should be related to its effects on mood.

5. A client is being taught how to use a diaphragm for contraception. Which of the following client statements indicate an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse.
• B. I will remove the diaphragm by catching the rim below the dome with my finger.
• C. I will not apply mineral oil on the diaphragm.
• D. I will place 2 teaspoons of spermicide on the inside of the diaphragm before inserting it.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client should place spermicide inside the diaphragm before insertion to enhance contraceptive effectiveness. It is recommended to leave the diaphragm in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse, but not more than 24 hours. Choice A is incorrect because the diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours, not 4 hours. Choice B is incorrect as the diaphragm should be removed by hooking the rim below the dome, not above. Choice C is incorrect because mineral oil should not be used with the diaphragm as it can weaken the latex.

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