Nursing Elites

1. A nurse providing dietary teaching for a client who is at 29 weeks of gestation and has phenylketonuria. Which of the following suggested foods should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. A peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread
• B. A sliced apple and red grapes
• C. A chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk
• D. A scrambled egg with cheddar cheese

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients with phenylketonuria (PKU) must adhere to a strict low-phenylalanine diet to prevent neurological damage. Foods high in phenylalanine such as peanut butter, wheat bread, chocolate chip cookies, milk, scrambled eggs, and cheddar cheese should be avoided. Sliced apples and red grapes are low in phenylalanine, making them safe choices for individuals with PKU. Choice A (peanut butter sandwich on wheat bread), Choice C (chocolate chip cookie with a glass of skim milk), and Choice D (scrambled egg with cheddar cheese) are all high in phenylalanine and should be avoided by individuals with PKU.

2. A nurse in an outpatient facility is assessing a client who is prescribed furosemide 40 mg daily, but the client reports she has been taking extra doses to promote weight loss. Which of the following findings indicates she is dehydrated?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.020
• B. Urine specific gravity of 1.035
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Decreased heart rate

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A urine specific gravity greater than 1.030 is indicative of dehydration as it reflects concentrated urine. Choice A is incorrect as a specific gravity of 1.020 is within the normal range. Choice C, decreased skin turgor, can be a sign of dehydration but is not as specific as urine specific gravity. Choice D, decreased heart rate, is not typically a direct indicator of dehydration.

3. A nurse is reviewing a laboratory report for a client who is at 33 weeks of gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following laboratory results should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. BUN 35 mg/dL
• B. Hgb 15 g/dL
• C. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL
• D. Hct 37%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A BUN of 35 mg/dL indicates potential kidney impairment, which is a concern in preeclampsia due to compromised renal function. This finding warrants further evaluation by the provider. High BUN levels may suggest reduced kidney function, a common complication associated with preeclampsia. Hgb, Bilirubin, and Hct levels are within normal ranges and are not directly indicative of kidney impairment or preeclampsia in this scenario. Therefore, the nurse should report the elevated BUN level to the healthcare provider for prompt management and monitoring.

4. A client is in active labor and is receiving an epidural for pain relief. Which of the following should the nurse monitor as the priority?

• A. Fetal heart rate
• B. Client's blood pressure
• C. Client's respiratory rate
• D. Client's pain level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most common side effect of an epidural is hypotension, which can compromise placental perfusion. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is the priority to ensure maternal and fetal well-being. Fetal heart rate is important but monitoring the client's blood pressure takes precedence due to the risk of hypotension. Respiratory rate and pain level monitoring are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

5. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new diagnosis of dysphagia. Which of the following foods should be included when initiating feeding?

• A. Beef broth
• B. Oatmeal
• C. Apple juice
• D. Toast

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Oatmeal is a soft, easy-to-swallow food, making it appropriate for clients with dysphagia, as it minimizes the risk of aspiration compared to liquids or hard foods. Beef broth (Choice A) is a liquid and may pose a risk of aspiration. Apple juice (Choice C) is a liquid and can also be a choking hazard for individuals with dysphagia. Toast (Choice D) is a hard food that may be difficult for a client with dysphagia to swallow safely.

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