Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

2. When calculating the Apgar score of a newborn at 1 minute after delivery, which of the following findings would result in a score of 6?

• A. 4
• B. 5
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the newborn's findings at 1 minute after delivery indicate a heart rate >100/min (2 points), slow, weak cry (1 point), some flexion of extremities (1 point), grimace in response to suctioning (1 point), and body pink with blue extremities (1 point). Adding these points together results in a total Apgar score of 6, reflecting the newborn's initial assessment for their overall well-being. Choice A (4) is too low based on the given findings, while Choice B (5) is also lower than the correct score of 6. Choice D (7) is too high as it would require additional findings to reach that score.

3. A healthcare professional is assisting with the care of a client who is receiving IV magnesium sulfate. Which of the following medications should the healthcare professional anticipate administering if magnesium sulfate toxicity is suspected?

• A. Nifedipine
• B. Pyridoxine
• C. Ferrous sulfate
• D. Calcium gluconate

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is the antidote for magnesium sulfate toxicity. In cases of magnesium sulfate toxicity, calcium gluconate is administered to counteract the effects of magnesium and restore calcium levels. Magnesium toxicity can lead to symptoms such as muscle weakness, respiratory depression, and cardiac arrhythmias. Calcium gluconate helps in reversing these effects by competing with magnesium and preventing its adverse manifestations. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like hypertension and angina, not for magnesium toxicity. Pyridoxine is vitamin B6 and is not the antidote for magnesium toxicity. Ferrous sulfate is an iron supplement and is not used to treat magnesium sulfate toxicity.

4. A client in active labor at 39 weeks of gestation is receiving continuous IV oxytocin and has early decelerations in the FHR on the monitor tracing. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Discontinue the oxytocin infusion.
• B. Continue monitoring the client.
• C. Request that the provider assess the client.
• D. Increase the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Early decelerations in the FHR are benign and are typically caused by fetal head compression during contractions. In this case, with the client at 39 weeks of gestation and on oxytocin, it is important for the nurse to continue monitoring the client. Early decelerations do not require intervention as they are a normal response to certain stimuli and do not indicate fetal distress. Discontinuing the oxytocin infusion (Choice A) is not necessary as early decelerations are not related to oxytocin administration. Requesting the provider to assess the client (Choice C) is not needed for early decelerations as they are a normal finding. Increasing the infusion rate of the maintenance IV fluid (Choice D) is not indicated and would not address the early decelerations. Therefore, the appropriate action is to continue monitoring the client and reassess as needed.

5. A client with a BMI of 26.5 is seeking advice on weight gain during pregnancy at the first prenatal visit. Which of the following responses should the nurse provide?

• A. It would be best if you gained about 11 to 20 pounds.
• B. The recommendation for you is about 15 to 25 pounds.
• C. A gain of about 25 to 35 pounds is recommended for you.
• D. A gain of about 1 pound per week is the best pattern for you.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a client with a BMI of 26.5 (overweight), the recommended weight gain during pregnancy is 15 to 25 pounds. This range helps promote a healthy pregnancy outcome and reduces the risk of complications associated with excessive weight gain. Option A suggests a lower weight gain range, which may not be adequate for a client with a BMI of 26.5. Option C indicates a higher weight gain range, which could lead to complications for an overweight individual. Option D provides a general guideline for weight gain without considering the client's BMI, which is not personalized advice. Therefore, the most appropriate response is option B, offering a suitable weight gain recommendation for the client's BMI to support a healthy pregnancy journey.

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