Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a newborn who has a coarctation of the aorta. Which of the following should the provider recognize as a clinical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta?

• A. Increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs
• B. Decreased blood pressure in the arms with increased blood pressure in the legs
• C. Increased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs
• D. Decreased blood pressure in both the arms and the legs

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is increased blood pressure in the arms with decreased blood pressure in the legs. Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect characterized by a narrowing of the aorta, leading to increased blood pressure in the upper extremities and decreased blood pressure in the lower extremities due to decreased blood flow beyond the narrowing. Choice B is incorrect because coarctation of the aorta does not lead to increased blood pressure in the legs. Choice C is incorrect because increased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not a typical manifestation of coarctation of the aorta. Choice D is incorrect because decreased blood pressure in both the arms and legs is not characteristic of coarctation of the aorta.

2. A client at 38 weeks of gestation with a diagnosis of preeclampsia has the following findings. Which of the following should the nurse identify as inconsistent with preeclampsia?

• A. 1+ pitting sacral edema
• B. 3+ protein in the urine
• C. Blood pressure 148/98 mm Hg
• D. Deep tendon reflexes of +1

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep tendon reflexes of +1 are inconsistent with preeclampsia. Preeclampsia typically presents with hyperreflexia, not diminished reflexes. Diminished reflexes may indicate other neurological conditions, thus making this finding inconsistent with preeclampsia. Choices A, B, and C are consistent with preeclampsia. Pitting sacral edema, protein in the urine, and elevated blood pressure are common findings in preeclampsia due to fluid retention, kidney involvement, and hypertension associated with the condition.

3. A client is learning how to check basal temperature to determine ovulation. When should the client check her temperature?

• A. On days 13 to 17 of her menstrual cycle
• B. Every morning before arising
• C. 1 hour following intercourse
• D. Before going to bed every night

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The basal body temperature should be taken every morning before arising as it provides the most accurate reading. This time ensures consistency and eliminates variations that may occur throughout the day due to activities or environmental factors. Choice A is incorrect because ovulation can vary among individuals, and checking temperature on specific days may not align with the actual ovulation day. Choice C is incorrect as there is no direct correlation between intercourse and basal body temperature. Choice D is incorrect because taking the temperature before going to bed does not provide a consistent baseline reading.

4. A healthcare provider is assisting with the care for a client who has a prescription for magnesium sulfate. The provider should recognize that which of the following are contraindications for the use of this medication? (Select all that apply)

• A. Fetal distress
• B. Cervical dilation greater than 6 cm
• C. Vaginal bleeding
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'All of the Above.' Magnesium sulfate should not be used in cases of fetal distress, vaginal bleeding, or cervical dilation greater than 6 cm. These conditions can be exacerbated by the administration of magnesium sulfate, leading to further complications for the client. Choice A, fetal distress, is a contraindication because magnesium sulfate can further affect the fetal heart rate. Choice B, cervical dilation greater than 6 cm, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can potentially suppress uterine contractions, prolonging labor. Choice C, vaginal bleeding, is a contraindication as magnesium sulfate can further increase bleeding tendencies.

5. During a teaching session with a client in labor, a nurse is explaining episiotomy. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. An episiotomy is a perineal incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• B. A fourth-degree episiotomy extends into the rectal area and is not recommended
• C. An episiotomy is an incision made by the provider to facilitate delivery of the fetus
• D. A mediolateral episiotomy is preferred over a median episiotomy for most deliveries

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because an episiotomy is an intentional incision made by the healthcare provider to widen the vaginal opening during delivery. This procedure is performed to facilitate the birth of the baby and prevent uncontrolled tearing of the perineum. It is important for the nurse to educate the client on the purpose and implications of episiotomy to ensure informed decision-making and proper postpartum care. Choice A is incorrect because an episiotomy is not a perineal tear but a deliberate incision. Choice B is incorrect because a fourth-degree episiotomy extending into the rectal area is not a standard practice and can lead to complications. Choice D is incorrect because a mediolateral episiotomy is not universally considered easier to repair than a median episiotomy; the choice of incision type depends on the healthcare provider's preference and clinical situation.

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