Nursing Elites

1. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

2. When reinforcing discharge teaching to the parents of a newborn regarding circumcision care, which statement made by a parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. The circumcision will heal within a couple of days.
• B. I should not remove the yellow mucus that will form.
• C. I will clean the penis with each diaper change.
• D. I will give him a tub bath within a couple of days.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because cleaning the penis with each diaper change is essential for preventing infection and promoting healing after circumcision. This practice helps maintain good hygiene and reduces the risk of complications. Removing the yellow mucus or giving a tub bath too soon can interfere with the healing process and increase the likelihood of infection. Choice A is incorrect because circumcision healing usually takes about a week or more, not just a couple of days. Choice B is incorrect because parents should gently clean the area, including removing any discharge or debris as part of proper care. Choice D is incorrect because tub baths should be avoided until the circumcision is fully healed to prevent infection.

3. A client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus is being taught by a nurse about management during pregnancy. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should aim to maintain my fasting blood glucose between 100 and 120.
• B. I should engage in moderate exercise for 30 minutes if my blood glucose is 250 or higher.
• C. I will continue taking my insulin if I experience nausea and vomiting.
• D. I will avoid exercise if my blood glucose exceeds 250.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is essential for a client with pregestational type 1 diabetes mellitus to continue taking insulin as prescribed even if they experience nausea and vomiting. This is crucial to prevent fluctuations in blood glucose levels that could lead to serious complications. Choice A is incorrect because the fasting blood glucose target for pregnant women with diabetes is usually lower. Choice B is incorrect as engaging in exercise when blood glucose is high is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect as avoiding exercise is not the appropriate approach when blood glucose levels are elevated.

4. A client who is 6 hours postpartum and Rh-negative has an Rh-positive newborn. The client asks why an indirect Coombs test was ordered. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the healthcare provider?

• A. It determines if kernicterus will occur in the newborn.
• B. It detects Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood.
• C. It detects Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood.
• D. It determines the presence of maternal antibodies in the newborn's blood.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The indirect Coombs test is performed to detect Rh-positive antibodies in the mother's blood. In cases where the mother is Rh-negative and the baby is Rh-positive, the mother may develop antibodies against the baby's blood cells, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. Choice A is incorrect because kernicterus is a complication of severe jaundice, not directly assessed by the indirect Coombs test. Choice B is incorrect as the test aims to detect Rh-positive antibodies, not Rh-negative antibodies in the newborn's blood. Choice D is incorrect as the test is focused on detecting antibodies in the mother's blood, not the newborn's.

5. A client at 28 weeks of gestation received terbutaline. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Fetal heart rate 100/min
• B. Weakened uterine contractions
• C. Enhanced production of fetal lung surfactant
• D. Maternal blood glucose 63 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Terbutaline is a tocolytic medication that works by relaxing the uterine muscles, leading to weakened uterine contractions. This effect helps to prevent preterm labor. Therefore, the nurse should expect weakened uterine contractions in a client who has received terbutaline at 28 weeks of gestation. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Terbutaline administration would not directly affect the fetal heart rate, enhance fetal lung surfactant production, or cause maternal hypoglycemia.

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