Nursing Elites

1. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

2. A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Check the client's capillary refill.
• B. Massage the client's fundus.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
• D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.

3. A client is being educated by a healthcare provider about potential adverse effects of implantable progestins. Which of the following adverse effects should the healthcare provider include? (Select all that apply)

• A. Nausea
• B. Irregular vaginal bleeding
• C. Weight gain
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When educating a client about implantable progestins, it is important to discuss potential adverse effects. Nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain are common side effects associated with implantable progestins. Therefore, clients should be informed about these possibilities to ensure they are aware of what to expect and when to seek medical attention if needed. Choice D, 'All of the Above,' is the correct answer because all of the listed adverse effects (nausea, irregular vaginal bleeding, and weight gain) should be included in the client education. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they individually do not encompass all the potential adverse effects that the healthcare provider should discuss with the client.

4. A client at 32 weeks of gestation with placenta previa is actively bleeding. Which medication should the provider likely prescribe?

• A. Betamethasone
• B. Indomethacin
• C. Nifedipine
• D. Methylergonovine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In cases of placenta previa with active bleeding at 32 weeks of gestation, Betamethasone is prescribed to accelerate fetal lung maturity in anticipation of potential preterm delivery. This medication helps in reducing the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn, which is crucial in managing such high-risk pregnancies. Indomethacin is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug not indicated in this scenario and may be contraindicated due to its effects on platelet function and potential risk of bleeding. Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used for conditions like preterm labor or hypertension, not specifically for placenta previa with active bleeding. Methylergonovine is a uterotonic drug used to prevent or control postpartum hemorrhage, not indicated for placenta previa with active bleeding.

5. A client who is at 22 weeks gestation is being educated by a nurse about the amniocentesis procedure. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. You will lie on your right side during the procedure.
• B. You should not eat anything for 24 hours before the procedure.
• C. You should empty your bladder before the procedure.
• D. The test is performed to determine gestational age.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The nurse should advise the client to empty her bladder before an amniocentesis to minimize the risk of bladder puncture during the procedure. This precaution helps ensure the safety and accuracy of the procedure by reducing potential complications related to bladder puncture. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because lying on the right side, fasting for 24 hours, and determining gestational age are not relevant instructions for an amniocentesis procedure.

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