Nursing Elites

1. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

2. During preterm labor, a client is scheduled for an amniocentesis. The nurse should review which of the following tests to assess fetal lung maturity?

• A. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
• B. Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio
• C. Kleihauer-Betke test
• D. Indirect Coombs' test

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The Lecithin/sphingomyelin (L/S) ratio is a test used to evaluate fetal lung maturity. An L/S ratio greater than 2:1 indicates fetal lung maturity. This test helps in determining the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is used in screening for neural tube defects, not for assessing lung maturity. The Kleihauer-Betke test is used to detect fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not fetal lung maturity. The Indirect Coombs' test is used to identify the presence of antibodies in the mother's blood that could attack fetal red blood cells, not for assessing lung maturity.

3. A client is in the first trimester of pregnancy and lacks immunity to rubella. When should the client receive rubella immunization?

• A. Shortly after giving birth
• B. In the third trimester
• C. Immediately
• D. During the next attempt to get pregnant

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Rubella immunization is recommended shortly after giving birth for a pregnant individual who lacks immunity. This timing ensures the client is protected from rubella in future pregnancies. Administering the vaccine postpartum allows the body to develop immunity without posing any risk to the developing fetus during pregnancy. Option B is incorrect because administering the rubella vaccine in the third trimester can potentially expose the developing fetus to the live virus, which is not recommended. Option C is incorrect as there is a preferred timing for rubella immunization in this scenario. Option D is incorrect as waiting until the next attempt to get pregnant does not protect the current pregnancy from rubella exposure.

4. When teaching a new mother how to use a bulb syringe to suction her newborn's secretions, which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Insert the syringe tip after compressing the bulb.
• B. Suction each nare before suctioning the mouth.
• C. Insert the tip of the syringe at the center of the newborn's mouth.
• D. Stop suctioning when the newborn's cry sounds clear.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct instruction for using a bulb syringe to suction a newborn's secretions is to stop suctioning when the newborn's cry no longer sounds like it is coming through a bubble of fluid or mucus. This indicates that the airways are clear, and further suctioning is not needed to prevent irritation or damage to the delicate tissues of the newborn's nose and throat. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because inserting the syringe tip before compressing the bulb, suctioning each nare before the mouth, and inserting the tip at the center of the mouth can potentially harm the newborn and are not recommended practices for using a bulb syringe in this context.

5. A client who is pregnant is scheduled for a contraction stress test (CST). Which of the following findings are indications for this procedure? (Select all that apply)

• A. Decreased fetal movement
• B. Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)
• C. Postmaturity
• D. All of the Above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A contraction stress test (CST) is performed to assess how the fetus responds to the stress of contractions. Indications for this test include decreased fetal movement, intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR), and postmaturity. These conditions may warrant the need for a CST to evaluate fetal well-being and determine appropriate management. Therefore, all of the above options are correct indications for a contraction stress test. Options A, B, and C are incorrect because they are all valid reasons for performing a CST in a pregnant client.

Similar Questions