ATI LPN
Maternal Newborn ATI Quizlet
1. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
- B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
- C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
- D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.
2. A client is 1 hour postpartum and the nurse observes a large amount of lochia rubra and several small clots on the client's perineal pad. The fundus is midline and firm at the umbilicus. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider.
- B. Increase the frequency of fundal massage.
- C. Encourage the client to empty their bladder.
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In the postpartum period, the presence of lochia rubra and small clots along with a firm, midline fundus at the umbilicus is considered normal. In this situation, the appropriate action is to document the findings and continue to monitor the client. Changes in the amount and character of lochia, deviation of the fundus from the midline, or fundal height above or below the expected level may indicate a need for further intervention. Encouraging bladder emptying is important but not the priority in this scenario. Notify the healthcare provider if there are signs of abnormal postpartum bleeding or fundal abnormalities. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because at this stage, there are no signs of abnormality that require immediate notification of the healthcare provider, increased frequency of fundal massage, or immediate bladder emptying.
3. During a nonstress test for a pregnant client, a nurse uses an acoustic vibration device. The client inquires about its purpose. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It is used to stimulate uterine contractions.
- B. It will decrease the incidence of uterine contractions.
- C. It lulls the fetus to sleep.
- D. It awakens a sleeping fetus.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The acoustic vibration device is utilized during a nonstress test to awaken a sleeping fetus. This action helps ensure more accurate test results by eliciting fetal movements and heart rate accelerations, which are indicators of fetal well-being. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the primary purpose of the acoustic vibration device during a nonstress test is not to stimulate uterine contractions, decrease uterine contractions, or lull the fetus to sleep. Instead, it is specifically used to awaken a sleeping fetus to assess fetal well-being.
4. When caring for clients in a prenatal clinic, a nurse should report which client's weight gain to the provider?
- A. 1.8 kg (4 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
- B. 3.6 kg (8 lb) weight gain in the first trimester
- C. 6.8 kg (15 lb) weight gain in the second trimester
- D. 11.3 kg (25 lb) weight gain in the third trimester
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A weight gain of 3.6 kg (8 lb) in the first trimester is excessive and should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Excessive weight gain in the first trimester can be a sign of potential issues that need monitoring and intervention to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. Choices A, C, and D represent weight gains that are within normal ranges for the respective trimesters and do not raise immediate concerns for reporting to the provider.
5. A client in an obstetrical clinic is discussing using an IUD for contraception with a healthcare provider. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. An IUD should be replaced annually during a pelvic exam.
- B. I cannot get an IUD until after I've had a child.
- C. I should plan on regaining fertility 5 months after the IUD is removed.
- D. I will check to ensure the strings of the IUD are still present after my periods.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Checking for the presence of IUD strings after each period is crucial to ensure the IUD is correctly positioned and functioning. This practice helps in confirming the effectiveness of the contraceptive method and timely detection of any displacement or issues with the IUD. Choice A is incorrect as IUDs have varying durations of effectiveness, but they do not need to be replaced annually as a routine. Choice B is incorrect as women can get an IUD even if they haven't had a child. Choice C is incorrect as fertility typically returns shortly after IUD removal, not necessarily after a specific timeframe like 5 months.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access