Nursing Elites

1. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

2. When a client states, 'My water just broke,' what is the nurse's priority intervention?

• A. Perform Nitrazine testing.
• B. Assess the fluid.
• C. Check cervical dilation.
• D. Begin FHR monitoring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Begin FHR monitoring. The priority intervention when a client's water breaks is to assess the fetal well-being due to the risk of umbilical cord prolapse. Monitoring the fetal heart rate (FHR) will help the nurse ensure the fetus's well-being. Performing Nitrazine testing (choice A) or assessing the fluid (choice B) may provide information about the rupture of membranes but does not directly address fetal well-being. Checking cervical dilation (choice C) is important but not the priority when the client's water has broken.

3. During an assessment of a client in labor who received epidural anesthesia, which finding should the nurse identify as a complication of the epidural block?

• A. Vomiting
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Respiratory depression
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypotension is a common complication of epidural anesthesia due to the vasodilation effect of the medication. Epidural anesthesia can lead to vasodilation, causing a decrease in blood pressure. This hypotension may result in decreased perfusion to vital organs and compromise maternal and fetal well-being. Tachycardia is less likely as a complication of epidural anesthesia since it tends to have a vasodilatory effect. Respiratory depression is more commonly associated with other forms of anesthesia, such as general anesthesia, rather than epidural anesthesia. Vomiting is not typically a direct complication of epidural anesthesia and is more commonly seen with other factors such as pain or medications given during labor.

4. A client who is at 15 weeks of gestation, is Rh-negative, and has just had an amniocentesis. Which of the following interventions is the nurse's priority following the procedure?

• A. Check the client's temperature.
• B. Observe for uterine contractions.
• C. Administer Rho(D) immune globulin.
• D. Monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After an amniocentesis, the priority nursing intervention is to monitor the fetal heart rate (FHR) as the greatest risk to the client and fetus is fetal death. This monitoring helps in early identification of any fetal distress or compromise, allowing prompt intervention to ensure fetal well-being. Checking the client's temperature (Choice A) is not the priority as monitoring the fetus is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing for uterine contractions (Choice B) is important but not the priority after an amniocentesis. Administering Rho(D) immune globulin (Choice C) is typically done to Rh-negative clients after procedures that may lead to fetal-maternal hemorrhage, not immediately after an amniocentesis.

5. A nurse in a health clinic is reinforcing teaching about contraceptive use with a group of clients. Which of the following client statements demonstrates understanding?

• A. Using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and STIs.
• B. A diaphragm should be removed 2 hours after intercourse.
• C. Oral contraceptives can worsen a case of acne.
• D. A contraceptive patch is replaced once a month.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because using a water-soluble lubricant with condoms can help prevent breakage and ensure effectiveness in preventing pregnancy and sexually transmitted infections (STIs). This statement demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of proper condom use to maximize protection. Choice B is incorrect because a diaphragm should be left in place for at least 6 hours after intercourse to ensure contraceptive effectiveness. Choice C is incorrect as oral contraceptives are known to improve acne in some cases. Choice D is incorrect because a contraceptive patch is typically replaced weekly, not monthly.

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