Nursing Elites

1. A client gave birth 2 hours ago, and their blood pressure is 60/50 mm Hg. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Evaluate the firmness of the uterus.
• B. Initiate oxygen therapy via a non-rebreather mask.
• C. Administer oxytocin infusion.
• D. Obtain a type and crossmatch.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Assessing the firmness of the uterus is crucial in this situation. A uterus that is not firm could indicate postpartum hemorrhage, a common cause of low blood pressure after childbirth. By evaluating the firmness of the uterus, the nurse can quickly identify and address potential complications, such as excessive bleeding. Initiating oxygen therapy, administering oxytocin infusion, or obtaining a type and crossmatch may be necessary interventions later, but assessing the firmness of the uterus takes precedence as the first step in managing postpartum complications.

2. A healthcare professional in the emergency department is caring for a client who presents with severe abdominal pain in the left lower quadrant. The provider suspects a ruptured ectopic pregnancy. Which of the following signs indicates to the healthcare professional that the client has blood in the peritoneum?

• A. Chvostek's sign
• B. Cullen's sign
• C. Chadwick's sign
• D. Goodell's sign

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cullen's sign, which presents as bruising around the umbilicus, indicates the presence of blood in the peritoneum. This sign is significant in cases of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy as it suggests intraperitoneal bleeding, prompting immediate medical attention. Chvostek's sign is related to facial muscle spasm and is not indicative of peritoneal bleeding. Chadwick's sign refers to a bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina during pregnancy, not related to peritoneal bleeding. Goodell's sign is a softening of the cervix, which is a sign of pregnancy, and not specific to peritoneal bleeding.

3. A client presents with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage. Which action should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Check the client's capillary refill.
• B. Massage the client's fundus.
• C. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter for the client.
• D. Prepare the client for a blood transfusion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with uterine hypotonicity and postpartum hemorrhage, the priority is to address the risk of hypovolemic shock, which can lead to vital organ perfusion compromise and potentially death. Massaging the client's fundus helps to control bleeding by promoting uterine contraction and reducing blood loss, making it the nurse's priority intervention in this situation. Checking capillary refill may be important in assessing perfusion status but is not the priority over controlling the hemorrhage. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not the priority in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Although preparing for a blood transfusion may be necessary, addressing the primary cause of bleeding by massaging the fundus takes precedence to stabilize the client's condition.

4. A client in labor requests epidural anesthesia for pain control. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Position the client supine for 30 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• B. Administer 1,000 mL of dextrose 5% in water after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• C. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 minutes after the first dose of anesthetic solution.
• D. Ensure the client has been NPO for 4 hours before the placement of the epidural and the first dose of anesthetic solution.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action is to monitor the client's blood pressure every 5 to 10 minutes following the first dose of anesthetic solution to assess for maternal hypotension. This is crucial to detect and manage potential complications associated with the epidural anesthesia. Positioning the client supine for a prolonged period can lead to hypotension; administering dextrose solution is not a standard practice in epidural anesthesia; ensuring NPO status for 4 hours is not necessary before epidural placement.

5. A client who underwent an amniotomy is now in the active phase of the first stage of labor. Which of the following actions should the nurse implement with this client?

• A. Maintain the client in the lithotomy position.
• B. Perform vaginal examinations frequently.
• C. Remind the client to bear down with each contraction.
• D. Encourage the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to empty her bladder every 2 hours is essential during labor to prevent bladder distention, which can hinder labor progress and cause discomfort. A distended bladder can also lead to potential complications such as uterine atony or increased risk of infection. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining the client in the lithotomy position is not necessary during the active phase of the first stage of labor and may not be comfortable for the client. Choice B is incorrect because performing vaginal examinations frequently can increase the risk of introducing infection and disrupt the natural progress of labor. Choice C is incorrect as bearing down with each contraction is typically reserved for the second stage of labor when the cervix is fully dilated, not during the active phase of the first stage.

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