Nursing Elites

1. A nurse in a provider’s office is caring for a client who states, “I always have trouble sleeping.” Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Teach the client stress reduction techniques
• B. Recommend that the client avoid caffeine intake in the evening
• C. Identify the client’s typical bedtime routine
• D. Encourage the client to exercise regularly during daytime hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to identify the client’s typical bedtime routine. Understanding the client’s sleep habits, environment, and bedtime rituals can provide valuable insight into potential factors contributing to their sleep troubles. Teaching stress reduction techniques (choice A) may be beneficial but should come after understanding the client's routine. Recommending avoiding caffeine intake in the evening (choice B) and encouraging regular daytime exercise (choice D) are important interventions, but identifying the bedtime routine takes precedence as it directly addresses the client's immediate concern.

2. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

• A. Pain related to ischemia
• B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
• C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
• D. Anxiety related to pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

3. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide to the client?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Take the medication with food.
• D. Take the medication on an empty stomach.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) is to take the medication with a full glass of water. Alendronate can cause irritation to the esophagus, so it is important to take it with a full glass of water and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication to help prevent this irritation. Taking the medication at bedtime (choice B) may increase the risk of esophageal irritation as lying down can allow the medication to remain in the esophagus longer. Taking the medication with food (choice C) or on an empty stomach (choice D) can also interfere with the absorption of alendronate, reducing its effectiveness in treating osteoporosis.

4. The healthcare professional is caring for a client who is post-operative following a hip replacement. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?

• A. Pain at the surgical site
• B. Swelling in the affected leg
• C. Elevated temperature
• D. Shortness of breath

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a critical assessment finding that could indicate a pulmonary embolism or other serious complication related to surgery, such as a respiratory issue or cardiac problem. Immediate intervention is necessary to prevent further complications or harm to the client. Pain at the surgical site is common post-operatively and can be managed with appropriate pain relief measures. Swelling in the affected leg is expected after a hip replacement and can often be managed conservatively or monitored closely. An elevated temperature could be a sign of infection, which is important to address but may not require immediate intervention unless other symptoms of sepsis are present.

5. A nurse is preparing to administer methylprednisolone 10 mg by IV bolus. The amount available is methylprednisolone injection 40-mg/mL. How many mL should the nurse administer? (Round the answer to the nearest tenth. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 0.3 mL
• B. 0.25 mL
• C. 0.4 mL
• D. 0.5 mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the mL to administer, use the formula: Dose required (mg) ÷ Stock concentration (mg/mL) = Volume to administer (mL). In this case, 10 mg ÷ 40 mg/mL = 0.25 mL. However, when rounding to the nearest tenth, the answer should be 0.3 mL. Therefore, the nurse should administer 0.3 mL. Choice A is the correct answer. Choice B (0.25 mL) is the result obtained before rounding. Choice C (0.4 mL) and Choice D (0.5 mL) are incorrect calculations.

Similar Questions