Nursing Elites

1. A newborn whose mother is HIV positive is admitted to the nursery from labor and delivery. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Initiate treatment with zidovudine (ZDV) syrup at 2 mg per kg
• B. Bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine (Hibiclens) or soap
• C. Measure and record the infant's frontal-occipital circumference
• D. Administer vitamin K (AquaMEPHYTON) IM in the vastus lateralis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for a newborn potentially exposed to HIV is to bathe the infant with dilute chlorhexidine or soap. This helps reduce the risk of infection. Initiating treatment with zidovudine would be important but not the first priority. Measuring and recording the infant's frontal-occipital circumference and administering vitamin K are important tasks but are not the priority when dealing with potential HIV exposure. Immediate hygiene measures are crucial to minimize the risk of transmission.

2. An older male resident of a long-term care facility has been scratching his legs for the past 2 days. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Explain the importance of bathing or showering daily
• B. Encourage fluid intake of at least 2,000 ml daily
• C. Keep the legs covered as much as possible
• D. Apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention for the nurse to implement in this scenario is to apply emollient to the affected area at least twice daily. This is because applying emollients helps address dry skin, which is a common cause of itching in older adults. Explaining the importance of bathing or showering daily (Choice A) may be helpful for general hygiene but may not specifically address the itching. Encouraging fluid intake (Choice B) and keeping the legs covered (Choice C) are not directly related to addressing the itching caused by dry skin.

3. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?

• A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
• B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
• C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
• D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.

4. Which client is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?

• A. An adult client who cannot sleep due to constant pain
• B. An older client who attempted suicide 1 month ago
• C. A young adult who takes antipsychotic medications twice a day
• D. A middle-aged woman who uses a tank for supplemental oxygen

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because older adults are at higher risk for delirium, especially following a recent suicide attempt, which can be a significant stressor. Choice A is less likely to develop delirium solely due to difficulty sleeping; delirium is more complex and multifactorial. Choice C, a young adult taking antipsychotic medications, may be at risk for other conditions but not necessarily delirium. Choice D, a middle-aged woman using supplemental oxygen, is not directly linked to an increased risk of delirium compared to the older client who recently attempted suicide.

5. A client who sustained a pellet gun injury with a resulting comminuted skull fracture is admitted overnight for observation. Which assessment finding obtained two hours after admission necessitates immediate intervention?

• A. The client complains of a throbbing headache rated 10 (on a scale of 1 to 10)
• B. The client repeatedly falls asleep while talking with the nurse
• C. The entry site has a slow trickle of bright red blood
• D. The entry site appears reddened and edematous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with a pellet gun injury and a comminuted skull fracture, repeatedly falling asleep while talking with the nurse is a concerning sign. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or a deteriorating condition, requiring immediate intervention. The other options, such as a throbbing headache (choice A), slow trickle of bright red blood at the entry site (choice C), or reddened and edematous entry site (choice D), while important to monitor, do not directly indicate a need for immediate intervention as much as the client falling asleep repeatedly while talking does.

Similar Questions