Nursing Elites

1. An older male was recently admitted to the rehabilitation unit with unilateral neglect syndrome as a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?

• A. Provide additional light in the room to promote sensory stimulation
• B. Teach the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning
• C. Place a clock and calendar in the room to improve orientation
• D. Use hand and arm gestures to improve communication and comprehension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning is essential in addressing unilateral neglect syndrome caused by a cerebrovascular accident. This action helps improve visual awareness and assists the client in overcoming the neglect of one side of the body. Providing additional light for sensory stimulation (Choice A) may not directly address the issue of unilateral neglect. Placing a clock and calendar in the room (Choice C) may be helpful for orientation but does not specifically target unilateral neglect. Using hand and arm gestures for communication (Choice D) may aid in communication but does not directly address the visual scanning deficits associated with unilateral neglect syndrome.

2. After years of struggling with weight management, a middle-aged man is evaluated for gastroplasty. He has experienced difficulty managing his diabetes mellitus and hypertension, but he is approved for surgery. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Monitor for signs of depression
• B. Apply sequential compression stockings
• C. Provide a wide variety of meal choices
• D. Observe for signs of depression

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Observing for signs of depression is crucial in this patient's plan of care as depression can impact his overall recovery and management post-surgery. Depression is common in individuals struggling with weight management, diabetes mellitus, and hypertension. Monitoring for urinary incontinence (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the patient is undergoing gastroplasty for weight management, not a urinary issue. Applying sequential compression stockings (Choice B) is important for preventing deep vein thrombosis in immobile patients but is not the priority in this scenario. Providing a wide variety of meal choices (Choice C) is not the most crucial intervention at this stage, as post-gastroplasty dietary restrictions are essential for successful weight management.

3. While a patient is receiving beta-1b interferon every other day for multiple sclerosis, which serum laboratory test findings should the nurse monitor to assess for possible bone marrow suppression caused by the medication? (Select all that apply)

• A. Platelet count
• B. White blood cell count (WBC)
• C. Sodium and potassium
• D. Red blood cell count (RBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Beta-1b interferon can lead to bone marrow suppression, impacting blood cell production. Therefore, monitoring the platelet count, white blood cell count (WBC), and red blood cell count (RBC) is essential. Platelet count is a direct indicator of bone marrow function and can show early signs of bone marrow suppression. While sodium, potassium, and albumin/protein levels are important for overall health assessment, they are not directly associated with bone marrow suppression caused by the medication.

4. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

5. Which client’s vital signs indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP) that the nurse should report to the healthcare provider?

• A. P 70, BP 120/60 mmHg; P 100, BP 90/60 mmHg; rapid respirations.
• B. P 55, BP 160/70 mmHg; P 50, BP 194/70 mmHg; irregular respirations.
• C. P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations.
• D. P 110, BP 130/70 mmHg; P 100, BP 110/70 mmHg; shallow respirations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer. The vital signs presented (P 130, BP 190/90 mmHg; P 136, BP 200/100 mmHg; Kussmaul respirations) indicate increased intracranial pressure (ICP), which can be a serious condition requiring immediate medical attention. Kussmaul respirations are deep and labored breathing patterns associated with metabolic acidosis and can be a late sign of increased ICP. Choices A, B, and D do not demonstrate vital sign patterns consistent with increased ICP. Choice A shows variations in blood pressure and pulse rate but does not provide a clear indication of increased ICP. Choice B displays fluctuations in blood pressure and pulse rate with irregular respirations, but these vital signs do not specifically suggest increased ICP. Choice D presents relatively stable vital signs with shallow respirations, which do not align with the typical vital signs seen in increased ICP.

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