Nursing Elites

1. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
• B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
• C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
• D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.

2. The nurse is calculating the one-minute Apgar score for a newborn male infant and determines that his heart rate is 150 beats/minute, he has a vigorous cry, his muscle tone is good with total flexion, he has quick reflex irritability, and his color is dusky and cyanotic. What Apgar score should the nurse assign to the infant?

• A. 8
• B. 9
• C. 6
• D. 7

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8. The Apgar score is calculated based on five parameters: heart rate, respiratory effort, muscle tone, reflex irritability, and color. In this case, the infant has a good heart rate, vigorous cry, good muscle tone, and quick reflex irritability, which would total to 8. The only factor affecting the score is the cyanotic color, which could indicate potential respiratory or circulatory issues. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the overall assessment provided in the scenario.

3. A client admitted to the intensive care unit with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) has developed osmotic demyelination. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Patch one eye.
• B. Reorient often.
• C. Range of motion.
• D. Evaluate swallow

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent reorientation is crucial for clients with neurological impairments from osmotic demyelination to prevent confusion and assist with orientation. It helps maintain a proper sense of time, place, and person, reducing disorientation. Patching one eye (Choice A) is not a priority intervention for osmotic demyelination and does not address the immediate need for reorientation. Range of motion exercises (Choice C) may be important for overall care, but reorientation takes precedence due to its impact on neurological functioning. Evaluating swallow (Choice D) is not the primary intervention needed for osmotic demyelination; it is essential but not the first priority.

4. Which client should the nurse assess frequently because of the risk for overflow incontinence?

• A. A client who is bedfast, with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels
• B. A client with hematuria and decreasing hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
• C. A client who has a history of frequent urinary tract infections
• D. A client who is confused and frequently forgets to go to the bathroom

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Bedfast clients with increased serum BUN and creatinine levels are at high risk for overflow incontinence. This occurs due to decreased bladder function and reduced ability to sense bladder fullness, leading to the bladder overfilling and leaking urine. Choice B describes symptoms related to possible urinary tract infections or renal issues, but these do not directly indicate overflow incontinence. Choice C, a history of frequent urinary tract infections, may suggest other urinary issues but not specifically overflow incontinence. Choice D, a confused client who forgets to go to the bathroom, is more indicative of functional incontinence rather than overflow incontinence.

5. The nurse is completing a neurological assessment on a client with a closed head injury. The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score was 13 on admission. It is now assessed at 6. What is the priority nursing intervention based on the client’s current GCS?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider of the GCS score
• B. Prepare the family for the client’s imminent death
• C. Monitor the client q1 hour for changes in the GCS score
• D. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A significant drop in GCS indicates a severe decline in neurological status, necessitating immediate communication with the healthcare provider. Notifying the healthcare provider allows for prompt evaluation and intervention to address the worsening condition. Choice B is incorrect because preparing the family for imminent death is premature and not supported by the information provided. Choice C is incorrect as the frequency of monitoring should be increased to every 15 minutes rather than every hour due to the significant drop in GCS. Choice D is incorrect because initiating CPR is not indicated based solely on a decreased GCS score.

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