Nursing Elites

1. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes NPH/regular 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of azithromycin an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Provide a PRN dose of an antacid to take with the azithromycin right after breakfast
• B. Offer to obtain a new breakfast tray in an hour so the client can take the azithromycin
• C. Instruct the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating
• D. Tell the client to skip that day's dose and resume taking the azithromycin the next day

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Azithromycin should ideally be taken on an empty stomach; however, if taken after breakfast, it should not affect its efficacy. Instructing the client to eat his breakfast and take the azithromycin two hours after eating allows for proper absorption without compromising its effectiveness. Providing an antacid with azithromycin is not necessary in this case. Offering a new breakfast tray in an hour or skipping the dose is not the best course of action as it may lead to missed doses and potential effectiveness issues.

2. A client prescribed warfarin is being taught about dietary modifications by a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates understanding of the teaching?

• A. ''I need to avoid foods high in vitamin C.''
• B. ''I should eat a consistent amount of vitamin K each day.''
• C. ''I can eat as many leafy greens as I want.''
• D. ''I should not worry about any changes in my diet.''

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Consistency in vitamin K intake is crucial for clients on warfarin to maintain stable anticoagulation levels. Option A is incorrect as vitamin C does not directly interact with warfarin. Option C is incorrect because although leafy greens are high in vitamin K, excessive consumption can affect warfarin's effectiveness. Option D is incorrect as any changes in diet, particularly in vitamin K intake, can impact the efficacy of warfarin.

3. A 5-week-old infant who developed projectile vomiting over the last two weeks is diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Which intervention should the nurse plan to implement?

• A. Instruct the mother to give the child sugar water only
• B. Maintain intravenous fluid therapy per prescription
• C. Provide Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube
• D. Offer the infant Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Maintaining intravenous fluid therapy is crucial for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances caused by the vomiting in hypertrophic pyloric stenosis. Instructing the mother to give sugar water only (Choice A) is not appropriate as it does not address the dehydration and electrolyte imbalances adequately. Providing Pedialyte feedings via the nasogastric tube (Choice C) may not be sufficient to manage the severe fluid and electrolyte losses caused by the condition. Offering Pedialyte feedings every 2 hours (Choice D) may not be as effective as maintaining intravenous fluid therapy, especially in cases where rapid rehydration is necessary.

4. Prior to surgery, written consent must be obtained. What is the nurse’s legal responsibility with regard to obtaining written consent?

• A. Validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted
• B. Explain the surgical procedure to the client and ensure the client comprehends before signing the consent form
• C. Ensure the client, not a family member, signs the surgical consent form
• D. Confirm that the surgical consent form is signed and included in the client's record

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's legal responsibility in obtaining written consent is to validate the client's understanding of the surgical procedure to be conducted. This process ensures that the client has been comprehensively informed about the procedure, including its risks, benefits, and alternatives. Choice B is incorrect because it does not emphasize the validation of client understanding, which is crucial for informed consent. Choice C is incorrect as the client, not a family member, should provide consent unless specific circumstances dictate otherwise. Choice D is incorrect because although ensuring the consent form is signed and filed is important, it does not address the primary responsibility of confirming the client's comprehension and ensuring informed consent.

5. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
• B. Collect blood for coagulation times
• C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
• D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

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