Nursing Elites

1. A male client attends a community support program for mentally impaired and chemically abusing clients. The client tells the PN that his drugs of choice are cocaine and heroin. What is the greatest health risk for this client?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hepatitis
• C. Glaucoma
• D. Diabetes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis. Hepatitis is the greatest health risk for this client due to the potential for contracting the disease through needle-sharing, common among drug users. This can lead to serious liver complications. While hypertension, glaucoma, and diabetes are all important health concerns, they are not directly associated with the drug abuse mentioned in the scenario.

2. During the last 30 days, an elderly client has exhibited a progressively decreasing appetite, is spending increasing amounts of daytime hours in bed, and refuses to participate in planned daytime activities. Which action should the practical nurse take?

• A. Record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse
• B. Ask the family members to visit more often to stimulate the patient
• C. Motivate the client by offering favorite foods as a prize
• D. Withhold any medications that may cause side effects

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should record the findings and report the symptoms to the charge nurse. These behaviors may indicate a serious underlying condition such as depression or physical illness. By reporting to the charge nurse, the client can receive appropriate assessment and intervention promptly. Choice B is incorrect as family visits may not address the root cause of the symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the situation and may not be effective in addressing the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because withholding medications without proper assessment and guidance can be harmful to the client's health.

3. When administering parenteral iron, which action would be inconsistent with proper administration?

• A. Using the Z-track method
• B. Using an air bubble to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue
• C. Not massaging the injection site
• D. Using the deltoid muscle for administration

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Using the deltoid muscle for administration. Administering parenteral iron in the deltoid muscle is not recommended due to the risk of irritation and pain. The Z-track method (choice A) is preferred to prevent staining and irritation of the skin when administering irritating medications like iron. Using an air bubble (choice B) to avoid withdrawing medication into subcutaneous tissue is a common practice to ensure accurate administration. Not massaging the injection site (choice C) is also a standard practice to prevent potential irritation or bleeding at the injection site.

4. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

5. Which of the following is an appropriate intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis?

• A. Placing the patient in a supine position
• B. Administering a beta-blocker intravenously
• C. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids
• D. Applying a cold compress to the forehead

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering a beta-blocker intravenously is the correct intervention for a patient experiencing a hypertensive crisis. Beta-blockers help quickly reduce blood pressure and prevent complications such as stroke or heart attack. Placing the patient in a supine position can worsen the condition by reducing venous return and increasing the workload of the heart. Encouraging the patient to drink fluids is not recommended as it can exacerbate hypertension by increasing fluid volume. Applying a cold compress to the forehead does not address the underlying cause of the hypertensive crisis and is unlikely to provide significant benefit.

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