HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. A male client attends a community support program for mentally impaired and chemically abusing clients. The client tells the PN that his drugs of choice are cocaine and heroin. What is the greatest health risk for this client?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Glaucoma
- D. Diabetes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hepatitis. Hepatitis is the greatest health risk for this client due to the potential for contracting the disease through needle-sharing, common among drug users. This can lead to serious liver complications. While hypertension, glaucoma, and diabetes are all important health concerns, they are not directly associated with the drug abuse mentioned in the scenario.
2. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Gastric residual volumes
- C. Bowel sounds
- D. Urinary and stool output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.
3. The UAP reports to the PN that an assigned client experiences SOB when the bed is lowered for bathing. Which action should the PN implement?
- A. Obtain further data about the client's activity intolerance to position changes
- B. Advise the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath
- C. Direct the UAP to obtain vital signs and a pulse oximetry reading
- D. Notify the healthcare provider about the client's episode of SOB
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Advising the UAP to allow the client to rest before completing the bath is the most appropriate action to take. This helps manage the shortness of breath (SOB) experienced by the client and prevents further stress. By giving the client time to rest, the PN ensures the client's comfort and safety during care activities. The other options are not the most immediate or appropriate actions in this scenario: obtaining further data about activity intolerance (choice A) may delay addressing the current issue, obtaining vital signs and pulse oximetry (choice C) is important but not as immediate as allowing the client to rest, and notifying the healthcare provider (choice D) is premature before trying a simple intervention like allowing the client to rest.
4. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?
- A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
- B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
- C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
- D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.
5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
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