HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. When should a glucagon emergency kit be used for a client with Type 1 diabetes?
- A. During episodes of hypoglycemia
- B. At the onset of signs of diabetic ketoacidosis
- C. Before meals to prevent hyperglycemia
- D. When signs of severe hypoglycemia occur
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A glucagon emergency kit is used when signs of severe hypoglycemia occur in a client with Type 1 diabetes. Glucagon helps raise blood glucose levels in cases of severe hypoglycemia when the individual is unable to take oral glucose. It is crucial to administer glucagon promptly to prevent serious complications associated with low blood sugar levels. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a glucagon emergency kit is specifically indicated for severe hypoglycemia, not for general episodes of hypoglycemia, diabetic ketoacidosis, or prevention of hyperglycemia.
2. A client is taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include which instruction when educating the client about this medication?
- A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
- B. Take medication with food to improve absorption.
- C. Take medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
- D. It can cause nausea and dizziness.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Levodopa-carbidopa should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset and improve absorption. Taking medication at bedtime is not necessary to avoid daytime drowsiness. It is crucial to prevent dehydration due to the medication's side effects. Choice B is incorrect because the medication should be taken with food, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food, rather than on an empty stomach, aids in absorption and reduces gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as it states the side effects of the medication rather than providing specific instructions on its administration.
3. A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?
- A. I will take my medicine at 10 PM before retiring to bed.
- B. The medication will turn the color of my urine to a pink color.
- C. I should not eat or drink anything for at least 2 hours before taking my medicine.
- D. In the event a seizure occurs in the middle of the day, I need to take an extra dose of my medicine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality. Choice B is incorrect because phenobarbital does not affect the color of urine. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to fast before taking phenobarbital. Choice D is incorrect because taking extra doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to overdose and adverse effects.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Take this medication with meals.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Report any signs of hypoglycemia to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.
5. A client who is prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension calls the clinic for advice. Which condition should the practical nurse notify the health care provider immediately and instruct the client to stop taking the medication?
- A. The client is experiencing vision and hearing loss.
- B. The client has an erection lasting longer than 4 hours.
- C. The client is complaining of nasal congestion.
- D. The client is complaining of feeling flushed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. If a client prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension experiences vision and/or hearing loss or an erection lasting more than 4 hours, the practical nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the medication immediately and notify the health care provider. These symptoms could indicate serious side effects that require prompt medical attention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an erection lasting more than 2 hours (not 4 hours as stated in choice B) is a critical adverse effect that warrants immediate medical attention. Nasal congestion (choice C) and feeling flushed (choice D) are common side effects of sildenafil and typically do not necessitate immediate discontinuation of the medication or emergency intervention.
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