Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed metformin. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of lactic acidosis to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed metformin is to take the medication with meals. Taking metformin with meals helps to minimize gastrointestinal side effects, which are common with this medication. Choice B, avoiding alcohol, is a good practice due to the increased risk of lactic acidosis when alcohol is consumed with metformin; however, it is not the priority teaching point in this scenario. Taking metformin on an empty stomach (Choice C) is incorrect because it can increase the risk of gastrointestinal side effects. Reporting signs of lactic acidosis (Choice D) is important, but it is more related to monitoring for adverse effects rather than a primary teaching point for administration.

2. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?

• A. Isophane
• B. Glargine
• C. Regular
• D. Detemir

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.

3. A client has been diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma. The healthcare provider prescribes pilocarpine 1% eye drops. The nurse explains that which action of this drug makes it a useful treatment for the client's condition?

• A. The ciliary muscle contracts, increasing the outflow of aqueous humor in the eye.
• B. Ciliary muscles are paralyzed to decrease accommodation.
• C. Bilateral mydriasis with cycloplegia is accomplished.
• D. The production of aqueous humor in the eyes is decreased.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pilocarpine, a cholinergic agent, stimulates the ciliary muscle to contract, which opens the trabecular meshwork and facilitates the outflow of aqueous humor, reducing intraocular pressure. This mechanism helps in managing open-angle glaucoma by improving drainage and lowering pressure within the eye. Choice A is correct because the contraction of the ciliary muscle increases the outflow of aqueous humor, aiding in the treatment of open-angle glaucoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the mechanism of action of pilocarpine in treating glaucoma.

4. A client diagnosed with a herniated disc is prescribed hydrocodone/acetaminophen 10 mg/300 mg prn every 4 to 6 hours. As the practical nurse (PN) enters the client's room to administer the requested medication, the client is seen talking and laughing with visiting family. What action should the PN take?

• A. Hold the pain medication until after the visitors leave.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's drug-seeking behavior.
• C. Administer analgesia as requested by the client.
• D. Inform the client that the medication is not needed based on their behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the PN in this situation is to administer the analgesia as requested by the client. Pain management is based on the client's self-report of pain, which is the most reliable indicator of pain intensity. Analgesics should be given promptly when pain occurs and before it worsens. Following the administration of medication, the PN should discuss the situation with the charge nurse for further guidance or assessment.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed pioglitazone. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Kidney stones
• D. Bone fractures

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, liver toxicity. Pioglitazone is known to cause liver toxicity, so it is essential for the nurse to monitor the client's liver function while on this medication. Monitoring liver function tests can help detect any signs of liver damage early, allowing for timely intervention to prevent serious complications.

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