Nursing Elites

1. What pathophysiologic process is producing the symptoms of gout in a client with sudden onset of big toe joint pain and swelling?

• A. Deposition of crystals in the synovial space of the joints produces inflammation and irritation.
• B. Degeneration of joint cartilage causing inflammation.
• C. Infection of the joint space leading to inflammation.
• D. Increased synovial fluid causing joint swelling and pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Gout is characterized by the deposition of uric acid crystals in the synovial fluid of joints, which triggers inflammation and pain. This process is known as crystal-induced arthritis. Choice B is incorrect as gout does not involve degeneration of joint cartilage. Choice C is incorrect as gout is not caused by an infection of the joint space. Choice D is incorrect as gout does not result from increased synovial fluid but rather from the deposition of uric acid crystals.

2. While changing the dressing of a client with a leg ulcer, the nurse observes a red, tender, and swollen wound at the site of the lesion. Before reporting this finding to the healthcare provider, the nurse should note which of the client’s laboratory values?

• A. Neutrophil count.
• B. Hematocrit.
• C. Blood pH.
• D. Serum potassium and sodium.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Neutrophil count. Neutrophil count helps assess for infection, which is indicated by the redness, tenderness, and swelling of the wound. Elevated neutrophil count is a common sign of bacterial infection. Hematocrit (choice B) measures the proportion of blood volume that is occupied by red blood cells and is not directly related to wound infection. Blood pH (choice C) and serum potassium and sodium (choice D) are important for assessing acid-base balance and electrolyte levels but are not the primary indicators of wound infection.

3. The nurse is assessing a client who has herpes zoster. Which question will allow the nurse to gather further information about this condition?

• A. Has everyone at home already had varicella?
• B. Have the antifungal creams been effective?
• C. Do your family members share combs and brushes?
• D. Do you have any dry patches on your feet and hands?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Has everyone at home already had varicella?' Herpes zoster (shingles) is caused by the reactivation of the varicella-zoster virus, the same virus that causes chickenpox. By knowing if others at home had varicella (chickenpox), the nurse can assess the risk of transmission and provide appropriate guidance. Choice B is incorrect because antifungal creams are not effective for herpes zoster, which is a viral infection. Choice C is irrelevant to herpes zoster as it pertains to sharing personal items that may transmit head lice or certain skin infections. Choice D is also unrelated as it focuses on dry patches, not typical manifestations of herpes zoster which presents as a painful rash.

4. Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) is most often seen in school-age or adolescent children. The nurse should assess closely for what potential problem?

• A. Physical problems
• B. Relational problems
• C. Eating disorders
• D. Emotional problems

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Emotional problems.' Recurrent abdominal pain (RAP) in children is frequently associated with emotional factors rather than physical issues, relational problems, or eating disorders. Children may manifest emotional distress through physical symptoms like abdominal pain, making it crucial for nurses to assess for emotional problems as a potential cause.

5. Ten hours following thrombolysis for an ST elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), a client is receiving a lidocaine infusion for isolated runs of ventricular tachycardia. Which finding should the nurse document in the EMR as a therapeutic response to the lidocaine infusion?

• A. Stabilization of BP ranges
• B. Cessation of chest pain
• C. Reduced heart rate
• D. Decreased frequency of episodes of VT

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Decreased frequency of ventricular tachycardia (VT) episodes indicates that the lidocaine infusion is effectively managing the ventricular tachycardia. Stabilization of BP ranges (choice A) may not directly correlate with the therapeutic response to lidocaine for VT. Cessation of chest pain (choice B) may indicate pain relief but does not specifically address the effectiveness of lidocaine for VT. Reduced heart rate (choice C) is not a direct indicator of the response to lidocaine for managing VT.

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