Nursing Elites

1. A client with schizophrenia is being discharged with a prescription for risperidone (Risperdal). What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide?

• A. Stop taking the medication if you start feeling better.
• B. Be aware of the potential for weight gain with this medication.
• C. Report any unusual muscle movements immediately.
• D. You can drive as soon as you feel ready.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Report any unusual muscle movements immediately." Unusual muscle movements may indicate extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) or tardive dyskinesia, which are serious side effects of antipsychotic medications like risperidone. It is crucial to address these symptoms promptly to prevent long-term effects. Choice A is incorrect because stopping the medication suddenly can be dangerous and should only be done under medical supervision. Choice B, while important, is not the most critical instruction in this scenario. Choice D is also incorrect as the ability to drive may be affected by the medication and should be discussed with a healthcare provider.

2. The nurse plans to help an 18-year-old female intellectually disabled client ambulate on the first postoperative day after an appendectomy. When the nurse tells the client it is time to get out of bed, the client becomes angry and tells the nurse, 'Get out of here! I'll get up when I'm ready!' Which response is best for the nurse to make?

• A. Your healthcare provider has prescribed ambulation on the first postoperative day.
• B. You must ambulate to avoid complications that could cause more discomfort than ambulating.
• C. I know how you feel. You're angry about having to ambulate, but this will help you get well.
• D. I'll be back in 30 minutes to help you get out of bed and walk around the room.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: (D) provides a 'cooling off' period, is firm, direct, non-threatening, and avoids arguing with the client. (A) is avoiding responsibility by referring to the healthcare provider. (B) is trying to reason with an intellectually disabled client and is threatening the client with 'complications.' (C) is telling the client how she feels (angry), and the nurse does not really 'know' how this client feels, unless the nurse is also intellectually disabled and has also just had an appendectomy.

3. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends several hours a day arranging and rearranging items in their room. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Distract the client with another activity.
• B. Allow the client to continue the behavior.
• C. Set a time limit for the behavior.
• D. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings is the most therapeutic intervention for a client with OCD spending excessive time on compulsive behaviors. By expressing their feelings, the client can explore the underlying anxiety that drives the compulsion. This intervention also provides an opportunity for the nurse to offer support and help the client develop coping strategies.\n Choice A, distracting the client with another activity, may provide temporary relief but does not address the root cause of the behavior.\n Choice B, allowing the client to continue the behavior, does not promote therapeutic progress and may perpetuate the compulsion.\n Choice C, setting a time limit for the behavior, may create additional stress for the client and does not address the underlying emotional issues associated with OCD.

4. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed olanzapine (Zyprexa). What is the most important side effect for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Weight gain. Olanzapine (Zyprexa) is known to cause significant weight gain in patients. This side effect is crucial to monitor because it can lead to metabolic syndrome, diabetes, and cardiovascular issues. Monitoring the client's weight regularly and providing appropriate dietary guidance is essential. Hypotension (choice A), dry mouth (choice C), and tachycardia (choice D) are not commonly associated with olanzapine use and are not the primary side effects to monitor in this case.

5. A male client with mental illness and substance dependency tells the mental health nurse that he has started using illegal drugs again and wants to seek treatment. Since he has a dual diagnosis, which person is best for the nurse to refer this client to first?

• A. The emergency room nurse.
• B. His case manager.
• C. The clinic healthcare provider.
• D. His support group sponsor.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The case manager (B) is responsible for coordinating community services, making them the best person to refer the client to first as they can describe available treatment options. The emergency room nurse (A) is unnecessary unless the client's behaviors pose imminent threats. The clinic healthcare provider (C) and support group sponsor (D) may be useful but coordinating a treatment program tailored to the client's needs is the priority in this scenario.

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