HESI LPN
HESI Mental Health 2023
1. What is the priority intervention for a client with major depressive disorder admitted to the psychiatric unit with suicidal ideation?
- A. Conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment.
- B. Encourage the client to verbalize their feelings.
- C. Provide the client with positive affirmations.
- D. Refer the client to group therapy.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to conduct a thorough suicide risk assessment. When a client with major depressive disorder presents with suicidal ideation, the priority is to assess the level of risk to ensure the client's safety. This assessment helps determine the appropriate interventions, level of care, and monitoring needed. Encouraging the client to verbalize their feelings (choice B) is important, but not the priority when immediate safety is a concern. Providing positive affirmations (choice C) and referring the client to group therapy (choice D) may be beneficial interventions later on but do not address the immediate risk of harm to the client.
2. The nurse asks a female client with borderline personality disorder, 'How do you feel about your children not coming to visit this weekend?' The client looks out the window and replies, 'I really don't care.' Which response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. I noticed you were looking out the window when discussing your feelings.
- B. I think you're lying and it bothers you that your children aren't coming.
- C. I think you should discuss your children not coming in the group meeting.
- D. Why do you think your children didn't want to come visit you this weekend?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Acknowledging the client's non-verbal behavior, such as looking out the window, demonstrates active listening and provides the client with an opportunity to explore their feelings further. Choice B is incorrect as it accuses the client of lying without any evidence, which can damage the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is inappropriate as it dismisses the client's feelings and suggests a group discussion without addressing the client's emotions directly. Choice D is also incorrect as it focuses on the children's actions rather than the client's feelings, missing an opportunity for therapeutic communication.
3. A client with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse should include which information in the client's discharge teaching?
- A. This medication can cause physical dependence.
- B. It may take 2 to 4 weeks before you notice improvement.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. You may experience sedation as a side effect.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Buspirone takes time to become fully effective, so the client should be informed to expect a gradual improvement in anxiety symptoms. Choice A is incorrect because buspirone is not associated with physical dependence. Choice C is not directly related to buspirone but is generally a good practice when taking any medication. Choice D is less common with buspirone compared to other anxiety medications.
4. A LPN/LVN is performing a follow-up teaching session with a client discharged 1 month ago. The client is taking fluoxetine (Prozac). What information would be important for the nurse to obtain during this client visit regarding the side effects of the medication?
- A. Cardiovascular symptoms
- B. Gastrointestinal dysfunctions
- C. Problems with mouth dryness
- D. Problems with excessive sweating
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Gastrointestinal dysfunctions.' Fluoxetine commonly causes gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea, diarrhea, or constipation. These symptoms can significantly impact the client's quality of life and adherence to the medication regimen. Monitoring gastrointestinal issues is crucial for the nurse to ensure the client's well-being and optimize treatment outcomes. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because cardiovascular symptoms, problems with mouth dryness, and problems with excessive sweating are not typically associated with fluoxetine use and are less likely to be a focus of concern during this client visit.
5. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
- B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
- C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.
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