Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed canagliflozin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of urinary tract infection.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan is to report any signs of urinary tract infection. Canagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, can increase the risk of urinary tract infections. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take canagliflozin with meals, avoid alcohol, or restrict grapefruit juice consumption while on this medication.

3. In a capillary glucose measurement, a client is to receive 10 units of regular insulin and isophane insulin. How should the nurse prepare?

• A. Withdraw ten units of regular insulin from a vial
• B. Withhold the dose until regular insulin is available
• C. Obtain a new vial of regular insulin and withhold
• D. Pull up 30 units from a vial but only administer 10 units

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In insulin administration, regular insulin is typically administered before isophane insulin to manage blood glucose effectively. If regular insulin is not available, it is best to withhold the dose until it can be administered as prescribed. Choice A is incorrect as it suggests withdrawing from a specific vial without specifying regular insulin. Choice C is incorrect as obtaining a new vial of regular insulin may not be necessary if it becomes available shortly. Choice D is incorrect as administering 10 units from a mixture of regular and isophane insulin is not the correct approach.

4. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Apical heart rate of 60 beats/min
• B. Sweating across the forehead
• C. Poor sucking effort
• D. Respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

5. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

• A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
• D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

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