Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

2. A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate a second intravenous access site
• B. Prepare to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• C. Determine the results of the drug toxicity screen
• D. Administer an additional dose of naloxone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.

3. A 67-year-old client is discharged from the hospital with a prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg daily. Which instruction by the practical nurse (PN) is correct?

• A. Take the medication in the morning before getting out of bed.
• B. Do not take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow.
• C. Expect some vision changes due to the medication.
• D. Increase intake of foods rich in potassium.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking digoxin is not to take the medication if the heartbeat is irregular or slow. Digoxin can affect the heart rhythm, so it is crucial to monitor the pulse rate. In case of irregular or slow heartbeats, the medication should be withheld, and the healthcare provider should be consulted. This step is necessary to prevent potential complications associated with digoxin therapy. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Taking digoxin in the morning before getting out of bed is not a specific requirement. Vision changes are not a common side effect of digoxin. While digoxin can affect potassium levels, it is not advised to increase potassium intake without healthcare provider guidance.

4. What is the primary nursing intervention that the practical nurse should perform before administering ampicillin to a client diagnosed with a urinary tract infection?

• A. Obtain a clean-catch urine specimen.
• B. Assess the urine pH for acidity.
• C. Insert an indwelling catheter.
• D. Assess for complaints of dysuria.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain a clean-catch urine specimen. Before administering ampicillin to a client with a urinary tract infection, it is crucial to collect a urine specimen to determine the causative organism and evaluate the effectiveness of pharmacological therapy. Assessing the urine pH for acidity (choice B) is not the primary intervention needed before administering ampicillin. Inserting an indwelling catheter (choice C) is invasive and not necessary unless indicated for specific reasons. Assessing for complaints of dysuria (choice D) is important but does not take precedence over obtaining a urine specimen for proper diagnosis and treatment.

5. What action should the nurse implement for a female client taking the bisphosphonate medication ibandronate for osteoporosis?

• A. Ask the client to describe how she takes the medication
• B. Reassure the client that the heartburn is temporary
• C. Explain that the use of antacids might be helpful
• D. Encourage the client to increase her calcium intake

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Ensuring correct administration of bisphosphonates, like ibandronate, is essential to maximize effectiveness and minimize potential side effects. By asking the client to describe how she takes the medication, the nurse can assess the client's understanding and adherence to the prescribed regimen, ultimately promoting optimal therapeutic outcomes.

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