Nursing Elites

1. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

2. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

4. A client prescribed glipizide asked why they had to take their insulin orally. How should the practical nurse respond?

• A. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin and can be used only when some beta cell function is present.
• B. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and is distributed, metabolized, and excreted in the same manner as insulin.
• C. Glipizide is an oral form of insulin and has the same actions and properties as intermediate insulin.
• D. Glipizide is not an oral form of insulin, but it is effective for those who are resistant to injectable insulins.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The practical nurse should explain to the client that glipizide is not an oral form of insulin but an oral hypoglycemic agent. Glipizide works by enhancing pancreatic production of insulin when some beta cell function is present. It is not a replacement for insulin but helps the body produce more insulin. Therefore, it can be used when there is still some beta cell function present, unlike insulin which is used when there is a deficiency of endogenous insulin production.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

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