Nursing Elites

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Weight gain
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed erythropoietin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Tachycardia
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythropoietin is a medication commonly used to stimulate red blood cell production in individuals with chronic kidney disease. One of the potential adverse effects of erythropoietin therapy is hypertension. The increased production of red blood cells can lead to elevated blood pressure levels. Therefore, monitoring for hypertension is essential to ensure the client's safety and well-being while on this medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hypotension, tachycardia, and bradycardia are not typically associated with erythropoietin therapy. Hypertension is the primary adverse effect to monitor in this case.

3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

5. A healthy 68-year-old client asks the practical nurse (PN) whether they should take the pneumococcal vaccine. Which statement should the PN offer to the client that provides the most accurate information about this vaccine?

• A. The vaccine is given annually before the flu season to those older than 50 years.
• B. The immunization is recommended for children younger than 2 years old and all adults 65 years or older.
• C. The vaccine is for all ages and is given primarily to those traveling overseas to areas of infection.
• D. The vaccine will prevent the occurrence of pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because it is usually recommended that children younger than 2 years old and adults 65 years or older get vaccinated against pneumococcal disease. This is because these age groups are more susceptible to severe complications from the infection. While the vaccine may be recommended for certain individuals with specific medical conditions at any age, the primary target groups are as mentioned in option B. Option A is incorrect as the pneumococcal vaccine is not given annually like the flu vaccine. Option C is incorrect because the vaccine is not primarily for travelers but for certain age groups and individuals with medical conditions at risk. Option D is incorrect as the vaccine's duration of protection can vary, and it is not guaranteed to prevent pneumococcal pneumonia for up to 5 years.

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