Nursing Elites

1. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

2. The nurse is caring for an elderly female client who tells the nurse, 'When I sneeze, I wet my pants.' After discussing the client's complaint with the charge nurse, the nurse plans to reinforce teaching about the importance of Kegel exercises. What muscles are involved in these exercises?

• A. Pectoral muscles
• B. Buttock muscles
• C. Abdominal muscles
• D. Pelvic floor muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Kegel exercises involve the pelvic floor muscles. These muscles help strengthen the muscles controlling urination, potentially reducing symptoms of urinary incontinence. Pectoral muscles (Choice A), responsible for movement of the shoulders and arms, are not involved in Kegel exercises. Buttock muscles (Choice B) are primarily responsible for hip movement and stability, not related to Kegel exercises. Abdominal muscles (Choice C) support the core and trunk but are not the focus of Kegel exercises.

3. Which task could the nurse safely delegate to the UAP?

• A. Oral feeding of a two-year-old child after application of a hip spica cast
• B. Assessment of the placement and patency of an NG tube
• C. Participation in staff rounds to record notes regarding client goals
• D. Evaluation of a client's incisional pain following narcotic administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because oral feeding of a stable child is a task that can be safely delegated to a UAP. This task does not require nursing assessment or clinical judgment. Choice B involves assessment, which requires the nurse's clinical judgment. Choice C involves recording client goals during staff rounds, which may require interpretation and understanding of the goals set. Choice D involves evaluating a client's pain following medication administration, which requires assessment and clinical judgment by a nurse.

4. The nurse is teaching a client with diabetes mellitus how to differentiate between hypoglycemia and ketoacidosis. What statement indicates to the nurse that the client has an understanding of this condition?

• A. Glucose should be taken if I have a fruity breath odor.
• B. Glucose should be taken if I am urinating more than usual.
• C. Glucose should be taken if I have blurred vision.
• D. Glucose should be taken if I develop shakiness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Shakiness is a symptom of hypoglycemia, which is low blood sugar. Taking glucose can help raise blood sugar levels quickly in this situation. Fruity breath odor and excessive urination are signs of ketoacidosis, a complication of diabetes involving high levels of ketones in the blood. Blurred vision can be a symptom of high blood sugar, but it is not specific to hypoglycemia.

5. The PN reviews a client's medication history and learns that the client takes an anticoagulant and has recently started taking phenytoin. Which instruction should the PN provide when assigning the client's morning care to a UAP?

• A. Measure the temperature every 4 hours
• B. Elevate both feet on two pillows
• C. Initiate hourly turning schedule
• D. Protect skin from injury and bruising

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Protect skin from injury and bruising. Phenytoin and anticoagulants both increase the risk of bleeding. Protecting the skin from injury and bruising is critical to prevent complications, making it important to instruct the UAP accordingly. Measuring the temperature every 4 hours (Choice A) may not be directly related to the client's medications. Elevating both feet on two pillows (Choice B) is more relevant for issues like edema. Initiating an hourly turning schedule (Choice C) is important for preventing pressure ulcers, but in this case, the priority is to prevent bleeding due to the medications.

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