Nursing Elites

1. A nurse who receives a patient in the operative suite prior to the actual surgery is in charge of the patient’s care. Which of the following is NOT a task related to the nurse’s intraoperative care?

• A. Go over the surgical procedure with the patient before he or she is anesthetized
• B. Strictly adhere to asepsis during all intraoperative procedures
• C. Provide emotional support to the patient and their family
• D. Monitor the patient’s physical status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Going over the surgical procedure with the patient is typically done preoperatively, not intraoperatively. Intraoperative tasks of a nurse involve strictly adhering to asepsis during procedures, monitoring the patient's physical status, and providing emotional support to the patient and their family during the surgery. Choices B, C, and D are all tasks that are directly related to the nurse's responsibilities during the intraoperative phase of care.

2. A client post-coronary artery bypass graft (CABG) surgery is concerned about the risk of infection. What is the most important preventive measure the nurse should emphasize during discharge teaching?

• A. Avoid touching the incision sites with bare hands.
• B. Take all prescribed antibiotics as directed.
• C. Report any signs of infection to the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Keep the incision sites clean and dry.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Keep the incision sites clean and dry.' After CABG surgery, maintaining the cleanliness and dryness of the incision sites is crucial to prevent infections. This practice reduces the risk of introducing harmful microorganisms to the surgical wound, promoting healing and preventing complications. Option A, while important, does not fully encompass the preventive measures necessary to avoid infections post-surgery. Option B is significant if antibiotics are prescribed, but ensuring cleanliness directly addresses infection prevention. Option C is reactive and focuses on addressing infection after it occurs, rather than proactively preventing it.

3. During a clinic visit for a sore throat, a client's basal metabolic panel reveals a serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L. Which intervention should the PN recommend to the client based on this finding?

• A. Increase intake of dried peaches and apricots
• B. Reduce intake of red meats
• C. Encourage use of a soft toothbrush
• D. Force fluid intake to 1500 mL daily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to recommend increasing the intake of dried peaches and apricots. A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is considered low. Increasing the intake of potassium-rich foods can help raise the serum potassium level, preventing complications such as muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Choice B, reducing intake of red meats, is incorrect because red meats are not specifically related to potassium levels. Choice C, encouraging the use of a soft toothbrush, is unrelated to addressing low potassium levels. Choice D, forcing fluid intake to 1500 mL daily, is not the appropriate intervention for low serum potassium; instead, increasing potassium-rich foods is more beneficial.

4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

5. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.

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