HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. A client with a history of severe anxiety is scheduled for surgery. Which preoperative medication is the most appropriate for the LPN/LVN to administer to this client?
- A. Lorazepam (Ativan)
- B. Morphine sulfate
- C. Meperidine (Demerol)
- D. Promethazine (Phenergan)
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Lorazepam (Ativan) is the most appropriate preoperative medication for a client with severe anxiety. Lorazepam belongs to the benzodiazepine class and is commonly used to manage anxiety before surgical procedures due to its anxiolytic properties. Morphine sulfate and Meperidine (Demerol) are opioid analgesics, not typically indicated for preoperative anxiety. Promethazine (Phenergan) is an antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting, not anxiety management.
2. A client is scheduled for a bronchoscopy. After the nurse explains the procedure, which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I'm glad I don’t have to lie still for this procedure.
- B. I will have a local anesthetic to help with discomfort.
- C. I hope I get some medicine to relax me.
- D. I can't eat or drink for 6 hours before the procedure.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because the client's statement indicates a misunderstanding about the need to lie still during the bronchoscopy procedure. The client actually needs to remain still for the procedure to ensure its accuracy and safety. Choices B, C, and D demonstrate an understanding of the procedure by acknowledging the local anesthetic for discomfort, the possibility of receiving medicine for relaxation, and the requirement to fast before the procedure, respectively.
3. An elderly client who requires frequent monitoring fell and fractured a hip. Which LPN/LVN is at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment?
- A. A nurse who worked the 7 to 3 shift at the hospital and wrote poor nursing notes.
- B. The nurse assigned to care for the client who was at lunch at the time of the fall.
- C. The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred.
- D. The charge nurse who completed rounds 30 minutes before the fall occurred.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse who transferred the client to the chair when the fall occurred is directly involved in the event that led to the injury. Improper transfer techniques or lack of appropriate precautions during the transfer could have contributed to the fall and subsequent fracture of the hip. This direct involvement makes this nurse the one at greatest risk for a malpractice judgment. Choices A, B, and D are not as directly linked to the event that caused the injury. While poor nursing notes could be a factor, it is the immediate action of transferring the client that has a more direct impact on the client's fall and subsequent injury.
4. A client who is terminally ill has a family member who is coping effectively with the situation. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication of effective coping?
- A. "We still have hope that everything will be okay."
- B. "This is a difficult time, but we are helping each other through this."
- C. "After he comes home, we can plan out a family reunion."
- D. "We don't need to talk about funeral arrangements at this time."
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because an effective coping strategy involves mutual support and communication within the family. This statement reflects effective coping skills as the family is shown to be helping each other through the difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as maintaining hope does not necessarily indicate effective coping. Choice C focuses on future events and may not address the current situation of coping with a terminally ill family member. Choice D avoids discussing important aspects of end-of-life planning, which may not reflect effective coping with the situation at hand.
5. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?
- A. Pain related to ischemia
- B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
- C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
- D. Anxiety related to pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.
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