HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Positive bowel sounds
- B. Rebound tenderness
- C. Increased appetite
- D. Elevated temperature
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.
2. The client is being taught about the use of syringes and needles for home administration of medications. Which action by the client indicates an understanding of standard precautions?
- A. Remove the needle after discarding used syringes
- B. Wear gloves while disposing of the needle and syringe
- C. Wear a face mask during medication administration
- D. Wash hands before handling the needle and syringe
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Washing hands before handling the needle and syringe is a critical step in infection control and adherence to standard precautions. Clean hands help prevent the transfer of microorganisms and reduce the risk of infection. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to standard precautions. Removing the needle after discarding used syringes (Choice A) can increase the risk of needlestick injuries. Wearing gloves while disposing of the needle and syringe (Choice B) is important for personal protection but does not specifically address standard precautions. Wearing a face mask during medication administration (Choice C) is not directly related to handling syringes and needles, which are more pertinent to standard precautions.
3. A client has acute renal failure. Which of the following assessments provides the most accurate measure of the client's fluid status?
- A. Daily weight
- B. Intake and output
- C. Urine specific gravity
- D. Peripheral edema
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Daily weight is the most accurate measure of fluid status in a client with acute renal failure. Fluctuations in weight reflect changes in body fluid volume, including both fluid retention or loss. Intake and output, while important, may not always accurately reflect overall fluid status as it does not account for insensible losses. Urine specific gravity can provide information on urine concentration but does not offer a comprehensive assessment of overall fluid status. Peripheral edema, although a sign of fluid retention, is a more subjective assessment and may not always accurately reflect the client's fluid status like daily weight monitoring does.
4. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
5. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells the client that diapers will be used next time the urinal is used improperly. Which of the following torts is the AP committing?
- A. Assault
- B. Battery
- C. False imprisonment
- D. Invasion of privacy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault involves making threats or using actions that cause the client to fear harm. In this scenario, the AP's threat to use diapers next time the urinal is used improperly constitutes as assault. Choice B, Battery, involves intentional harmful or offensive touching without consent, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, False imprisonment, refers to restraining or restricting a client's freedom of movement, which is not occurring in this situation. Choice D, Invasion of privacy, involves violating a client's right to privacy, which is also not applicable here.
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