Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Positive bowel sounds
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

2. A healthcare professional is reviewing a plan of care for a client who was admitted with dehydration as a result of prolonged watery diarrhea. Which prescription should the healthcare professional question?

• A. Oral psyllium (Metamucil)
• B. Oral potassium supplement
• C. Parenteral half normal saline
• D. Parenteral albumin (Albuminar)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Parenteral albumin (Albuminar). Parenteral albumin is not typically indicated for dehydration resulting from diarrhea. In this case, fluid replacement therapy with intravenous fluids such as parenteral half normal saline would be more appropriate. Oral psyllium and oral potassium supplement are not the primary interventions for managing dehydration due to watery diarrhea. Oral psyllium is a fiber supplement used for constipation rather than diarrhea. Oral potassium supplements may be necessary if potassium levels are low due to dehydration, but the priority is fluid replacement. Therefore, choices A and B are less relevant in this scenario.

3. At 0100 on a male client's second postoperative night, the client states he is unable to sleep and plans to read until feeling sleepy. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Stay with the client and offer assistance with relaxation techniques
• B. Assess the client's pain level and administer pain medication if needed
• C. Bring the client a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic
• D. Encourage the client to engage in a quiet, non-stimulating activity until feeling sleepy

Correct answer: C

Rationale: At 0100 on the client's second postoperative night, the nurse should address the client's inability to sleep. Providing a prescribed PRN sedative-hypnotic is appropriate in this situation to help the client rest. Choice A is incorrect because leaving the room and closing the door does not directly address the client's sleep concern. Choice B is not the priority at this moment since the client's main issue is insomnia, not pain. Choice D, while encouraging a non-stimulating activity, does not provide immediate relief for the client's sleeplessness as a sedative-hypnotic would.

4. When caring for a patient diagnosed with diabetes mellitus and circulatory insufficiency, experiencing peripheral neuropathy and urinary incontinence, on which areas does the nurse focus care?

• A. Decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment
• B. Decreased caloric intake and accelerated wound healing
• C. High risk for skin infection and low saliva pH level
• D. High risk for impaired venous return and dementia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should focus on decreased pain sensation and increased risk of skin impairment due to the patient's conditions. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to decreased pain sensation, making the patient more prone to injuries without realizing it. Additionally, the combination of circulatory insufficiency, peripheral neuropathy, and urinary incontinence can increase the risk of skin breakdown and impaired healing. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific issues related to the patient's diagnoses and symptoms.

5. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

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