HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
- B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
- C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
- D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.
2. A middle-aged adult in a clinical setting mentions being at average risk for colon cancer and asks about routine screening. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Performing a blood sample for a screening test.
- B. Scheduling a colonoscopy starting at age 60.
- C. Undergoing a fecal occult blood test annually.
- D. Having a sigmoidoscopy every 10 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Colorectal cancer screening for individuals at average risk typically begins at age 50. One of the recommended options for routine screening is a fecal occult blood test done annually. Choice A is incorrect as blood samples are not used for routine colorectal cancer screening. Choice B is incorrect because colonoscopies usually start at age 50, not 60. Choice D is incorrect as sigmoidoscopies are recommended every 5 years, not every 10 years, for individuals at average risk for colon cancer.
3. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform on a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula?
- A. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort.
- B. Measure the client's oxygen saturation level.
- C. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas levels.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Measuring the client's oxygen saturation level is the most important assessment in this scenario. Oxygen saturation level reflects how well the client is oxygenating, which is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of oxygen therapy for a client with COPD. Monitoring the respiratory rate and effort (Choice A) is important but assessing oxygenation with saturation levels takes precedence. While arterial blood gas levels (Choice C) provide comprehensive information, checking oxygen saturation is a quicker and more immediate way to assess oxygenation status. Checking blood pressure (Choice D) is not the priority when evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD.
4. While documenting in a client’s medical record, which of the following entries should the nurse record?
- A. “Incision without redness or drainage”
- B. “Drank adequate amounts of fluid with meals”
- C. “Administered pain medication”
- D. “Oral temperature slightly elevated at 0800”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because documenting specific observations, such as an oral temperature being slightly elevated at a specific time, is crucial for monitoring the client's health status accurately. This type of information helps in assessing trends and changes in the client's condition over time. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks specificity and does not provide measurable data about the client's condition. Choice B is incorrect because it is a general statement related to client behavior rather than a specific health observation. Choice C is incorrect as it reflects an action taken by the nurse and not a direct client's condition or observation.
5. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
- B. Complete a functional assessment of the client's self-care abilities
- C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
- D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first action the nurse should implement is to determine the size and depth of the skin breakdown over the sacral area. This initial assessment will provide crucial information on the extent of the damage and guide appropriate care interventions. Option A is not the priority in this scenario as the immediate concern is addressing the existing skin breakdown. Option B, completing a functional assessment, is important but should come after addressing the acute issue of skin breakdown. Option C, applying a barrier ointment, may be beneficial later but does not address the primary need of assessing the extent of the current skin damage.
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