HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
- B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
- C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
- D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.
2. The client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being educated about lifestyle changes. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will reduce my salt intake.
- B. I will exercise for 30 minutes most days of the week.
- C. I will drink alcohol only on the weekends.
- D. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients with COPD should limit alcohol intake, not just to weekends, to effectively manage their condition. Excessive alcohol consumption can worsen respiratory symptoms and interfere with medications. Choices A, B, and D are all appropriate and beneficial for clients with COPD. Salt intake reduction helps in managing fluid retention and blood pressure. Regular exercise improves lung function and overall health. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial for individuals with COPD as hypertension is a common comorbidity.
3. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?
- A. Pain related to ischemia
- B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
- C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
- D. Anxiety related to pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.
4. While caring for a client who is postoperative and has refused to use an incentive spirometer following major abdominal surgery, what is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Request that a respiratory therapist discuss the technique for using the incentive spirometer
- B. Determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer
- C. Document the client's refusal to participate in health restorative activities
- D. Administer a pain medication to the client
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse's priority is to determine the reasons why the client is refusing to use the incentive spirometer. By understanding the client's concerns or barriers, the nurse can address them appropriately. Requesting a respiratory therapist (Choice A) may be necessary later but is not the priority. Documenting the refusal (Choice C) is important but does not address the immediate need to assess and intervene. Administering pain medication (Choice D) without addressing the root cause of refusal is not appropriate and may mask the issue rather than resolve it.
5. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer. What findings should the nurse identify as a potential indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. A mole with an asymmetrical appearance.
- B. A mole with a regular border.
- C. A mole that is the same color throughout.
- D. A mole that is smaller than 6mm in diameter.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: A mole with an asymmetrical appearance. Asymmetry is a key characteristic of potential skin malignancy. An asymmetrical mole does not have a uniform shape when divided in half. This irregularity raises suspicion for skin cancer. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. A mole with a regular border (B) is more likely to be benign. A mole that is the same color throughout (C) is also a feature commonly seen in benign moles. Additionally, a mole smaller than 6mm in diameter (D) is not necessarily indicative of malignancy, as some melanomas can be smaller or larger than this size.
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