Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

2. A nurse is preparing an education program for staff about advocacy. What information should the nurse include?

• A. Advocacy ensures clients' safety, health, and rights.
• B. Advocacy involves only supporting client complaints.
• C. Advocacy means making all decisions for the client.
• D. Advocacy is not part of nursing responsibilities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Advocacy in nursing involves ensuring clients' safety, health, and rights. Nurses advocate for their clients by promoting autonomy, informed decision-making, and protecting their rights. Choice B is incorrect because advocacy goes beyond just supporting client complaints; it encompasses a broader scope of ensuring holistic care and well-being. Choice C is incorrect as advocacy does not mean making all decisions for the client but rather empowering them to make informed choices. Choice D is incorrect as advocacy is a crucial component of nursing responsibilities, as it involves standing up for clients' best interests and ensuring their rights are respected.

3. A healthcare provider is delegating client care to assistive personnel. Which of the following tasks should the healthcare provider delegate?

• A. Evaluating healing of an incision
• B. Inserting an NG Tube
• C. Performing a simple dressing change
• D. Changing IV tubing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct task that a healthcare provider should delegate to assistive personnel is performing a simple dressing change. Assistive personnel are trained and competent in performing basic wound care activities like simple dressing changes. Evaluating the healing of an incision requires clinical judgment and assessment skills that are typically performed by licensed healthcare professionals, such as nurses or physicians. Inserting an NG tube and changing IV tubing involve invasive procedures that require specialized training and skills, making them tasks that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers rather than assistive personnel.

4. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

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