Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

2. A nurse is preparing to administer an injection of an opioid medication to a client. The nurse draws out 1 mL of the medication from a 2 mL vial. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Ask another nurse to observe the medication wastage
• B. Notify the pharmacy when wasting the medication
• C. Lock the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet
• D. Dispose of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In medication wastage situations involving controlled substances, it is crucial to have a second nurse observe and verify the disposal process. This practice ensures accountability and prevents any mishandling or diversion of the medication. Choice B is incorrect because notifying the pharmacy is not the immediate action required in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as locking the remaining medication in the controlled substance cabinet without proper witnessing does not ensure accountability. Choice D is incorrect as disposing of the vial with the remaining medication in a sharps container does not address the need for a witness to verify the wastage of the controlled substance.

3. A client is recovering from gallbladder surgery performed under general anesthesia. How many times per hour should the nurse encourage the client to use the incentive spirometer?

• A. 4-5 times per hour
• B. 2-3 times per hour
• C. 6-7 times per hour
• D. 8-10 times per hour

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Encouraging the client to use the incentive spirometer 4-5 times per hour is the correct approach post-gallbladder surgery under general anesthesia. This frequency helps prevent respiratory complications, such as atelectasis, by promoting lung expansion. Choices B, C, and D suggest either too few or too many sessions per hour, which may not be optimal for the client's respiratory recovery needs. It is important to strike a balance between ensuring adequate lung expansion and not overexerting the client, which is why 4-5 times per hour is the recommended frequency.

4. A nurse manager is developing strategies to care for the increasing number of clients who have obesity. Which of the following actions should the nurse include as a primary health care strategy?

• A. Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits.
• B. Ensuring the availability of specialized beds in rehabilitation centers for clients who have obesity.
• C. Providing specialized intraoperative training in surgical treatments for obesity.
• D. Educating acute care nurses about postoperative complications related to obesity.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Collaborating with providers to perform obesity screenings during routine office visits. This is a primary health care strategy as it focuses on prevention and early detection, which are key components of managing obesity. Screening during routine visits allows for timely identification of obesity and related health risks, enabling early intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not align with primary health care strategies for obesity. Ensuring availability of specialized beds, providing intraoperative training, and educating about postoperative complications are more focused on secondary and tertiary levels of care, rather than primary prevention and early detection.

5. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

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