HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?
- A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
- D. Simvastatin (Zocor)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.
2. A male client presents to the clinic stating that he has a high-stress job and is having difficulty falling asleep at night. The client reports having a constant headache and is seeking medication to help with sleep. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine the client's sleep and activity patterns
- B. Obtain a prescription for the client to take when stressed
- C. Refer the client for a sleep study and neurological follow-up
- D. Teach coping strategies to use when feeling stressed
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assessing the client's sleep and activity patterns is crucial in understanding the factors contributing to the sleep difficulties and headaches. By evaluating these patterns, the nurse can identify triggers, stressors, and lifestyle habits that may be impacting the client's sleep quality and overall well-being. This assessment will guide the nurse in formulating an appropriate care plan tailored to the client's specific needs. Option B is not appropriate as it focuses solely on providing medication without addressing underlying issues. Option C is premature as a thorough assessment should precede any referrals for specialized studies. Option D, while important, should come after understanding the client's sleep patterns to provide more targeted coping strategies.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with cirrhosis of the liver. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?
- A. Yellowing of the skin and eyes
- B. Dark-colored urine
- C. Abdominal distention
- D. Confusion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Yellowing of the skin and eyes (jaundice) is a classic sign of liver dysfunction in clients with cirrhosis. Jaundice indicates the accumulation of bilirubin in the body due to impaired liver function. This finding suggests worsening liver damage and should be reported immediately to the healthcare provider for prompt evaluation and management. Dark-colored urine (choice B) is also a concerning symptom in liver disease, indicating possible bilirubin presence, but it is not as urgent as jaundice. Abdominal distention (choice C) and confusion (choice D) are common in cirrhosis but do not indicate an immediate need for healthcare provider notification compared to jajsondice.
4. During an admission assessment for an older adult client, what is the priority action for the nurse after gathering data and reviewing systems?
- A. Orient the client to their room.
- B. Conduct a client care conference.
- C. Review medical prescriptions.
- D. Develop a plan of care.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority action for the nurse after completing the assessment and review of systems for an older adult client is to orient them to their room. This is crucial for ensuring the client's comfort and safety in the new environment. While reviewing medical prescriptions and developing a plan of care are important aspects of the admission process, they can be done after the client has been oriented to their room.
5. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?
- A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
- B. Presence of serous drainage
- C. Edema around the wound
- D. Absence of granulation tissue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.
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