HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?
- A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
- B. Furosemide (Lasix)
- C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
- D. Simvastatin (Zocor)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.
2. A postoperative client is reporting pain at a level of 2 on a scale of 0 to 10. What is an indication that the client understands pain management?
- A. It might help me to listen to music while lying in bed.
- B. I should try to sleep as much as possible to avoid pain.
- C. I don’t need pain medication if my pain is only at a 2.
- D. I will try to use the pain management techniques suggested by the nurse.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because understanding pain management involves considering non-pharmacological approaches, such as listening to music for relaxation and comfort. Choice B is incorrect as excessive sleep may not be an effective pain management strategy. Choice C is incorrect because pain medication may still be necessary even if pain levels are low. Choice D is not the best answer, as it simply states following the nurse’s suggestions without demonstrating an understanding of personalized pain management techniques.
3. A client with a tracheostomy collar has a decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation during tracheal suctioning. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Elevate the head of the bed.
- B. Remove the inner cannula.
- C. Irrigate the stoma.
- D. Discontinue suctioning.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to discontinue suctioning. Suctioning should be stopped immediately to prevent further decrease in heart rate and oxygen saturation. Elevating the head of the bed may help with oxygenation, but the priority is to stop the suctioning procedure. Removing the inner cannula or irrigating the stoma are not appropriate actions and could worsen the client's condition.
4. A client with iron-deficiency anemia asks a nurse why the Z-track method is necessary for administering iron dextran. Which response should the nurse provide?
- A. It decreases the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel.
- B. It delays medication absorption.
- C. It minimizes tissue irritation.
- D. It accelerates medication excretion.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Z-track method is used to minimize tissue irritation by sealing the medication in the muscle. This technique helps prevent leakage of the medication into subcutaneous tissue, reducing the risk of irritation and staining at the injection site. Option A about decreasing the risk of injecting medication into a blood vessel is not correct as the primary purpose of the Z-track method is to prevent tissue irritation. Option B stating it delays medication absorption is incorrect as the Z-track method does not affect the rate of medication absorption. Option D mentioning it accelerates medication excretion is incorrect as the Z-track method does not impact medication excretion but rather focuses on minimizing tissue irritation.
5. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?
- A. 42 gtt/min
- B. 83 gtt/min
- C. 125 gtt/min
- D. 250 gtt/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access