Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of gout is experiencing an acute attack. Which medication should the nurse expect the healthcare provider to prescribe?

• A. Aspirin.
• B. Allopurinol (Zyloprim).
• C. Colchicine.
• D. Probenecid (Benemid).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During an acute gout attack, the healthcare provider is likely to prescribe colchicine. Colchicine is commonly used to treat acute gout attacks because it works by reducing inflammation and alleviating pain associated with the condition. It is important to note that aspirin is not recommended for gout treatment and may even exacerbate the symptoms. Allopurinol and probenecid are medications used for long-term management of gout by reducing uric acid levels in the blood, but they are not typically prescribed during an acute attack. Therefore, colchicine is the most appropriate medication for managing an acute gout attack.

2. What is the primary goal of care for a client experiencing esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis?

• A. Preventing infection
• B. Controlling bleeding
• C. Reducing portal hypertension
• D. Maintaining nutritional status

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of care for a client with esophageal varices secondary to liver cirrhosis is to control bleeding. Esophageal varices are fragile, enlarged veins in the esophagus that can rupture and lead to life-threatening bleeding. Controlling bleeding is crucial to prevent severe complications and ensure the client's safety and well-being. Preventing infection (Choice A) is important but not the primary goal in this case. Reducing portal hypertension (Choice C) is a long-term goal that may help prevent variceal bleeding but is not the immediate priority. Maintaining nutritional status (Choice D) is essential for overall health but is secondary to controlling bleeding in this critical situation.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to determine the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Platelet count.
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR).
• C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT).
• D. Fibrinogen level.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Prothrombin time (PT) and international normalized ratio (INR) are essential laboratory tests to monitor the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. These tests help assess the clotting time and the desired anticoagulant effect of the medication. Monitoring PT and INR levels is crucial to ensure that the client is within the therapeutic range, reducing the risk of bleeding or clotting complications associated with warfarin therapy. Platelet count (Choice A) measures the number of platelets in the blood and is not specific for monitoring warfarin therapy. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) (Choice C) is more commonly used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin. Fibrinogen level (Choice D) assesses the amount of fibrinogen in the blood and is not a specific test for monitoring warfarin therapy.

4. A client's telemetry monitor indicates the sudden onset of ventricular fibrillation. Which assessment finding should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Bounding erratic pulse.
• B. Regularly irregular pulse.
• C. Thready irregular pulse.
• D. No palpable pulse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ventricular fibrillation is a life-threatening arrhythmia characterized by chaotic, asynchronous contractions of the ventricles, resulting in ineffective cardiac output. This leads to the absence of a palpable pulse. Nurses should be prepared to initiate immediate interventions such as defibrillation to restore normal cardiac rhythm in a client experiencing ventricular fibrillation.

5. The healthcare provider is providing care to a client with a tracheostomy. Which action should the healthcare provider take to prevent tracheostomy complications?

• A. Use sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care.
• B. Suction the tracheostomy tube every hour.
• C. Keep the tracheostomy tube cuff inflated at all times.
• D. Change the tracheostomy ties daily.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Using sterile technique when performing tracheostomy care is essential to prevent infections and other complications. Proper sterile technique helps reduce the risk of introducing harmful bacteria into the tracheostomy site, which can lead to infections and other serious issues. By maintaining a sterile environment during tracheostomy care, the healthcare provider can promote healing and prevent potential complications.

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