Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following laboratory values?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Serum potassium
• C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• D. White blood cell count (WBC)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Prothrombin time (PT). Prothrombin time is monitored to assess the effectiveness of warfarin therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors, including factors II, VII, IX, and X. Monitoring the PT helps ensure that the client's blood is clotting within the desired therapeutic range to prevent complications such as recurrent DVT or excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because serum potassium, blood urea nitrogen, and white blood cell count are not directly related to monitoring warfarin therapy in a client with a history of DVT.

2. An 82-year-old client is prescribed eye drops for the treatment of glaucoma. What assessment is needed before the nurse begins teaching proper administration of the medication?

• A. Determine the client's manual dexterity
• B. The client’s manual dexterity
• C. Proximity to health care services
• D. Ability to use visual assistive devices

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Assessing the client’s manual dexterity is crucial before teaching the administration of eye drops. Manual dexterity is essential for the proper instillation of eye drops. If the client has limited manual dexterity, alternative methods of administration may be necessary. The other choices, such as determining third-party payment plan, proximity to health care services, and ability to use visual assistive devices, are not directly related to the immediate need for assessing manual dexterity for the proper administration of eye drops.

3. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

4. Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Early detection and treatment
• C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness
• D. Health education

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.

5. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

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