Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of asthma presents to the emergency department with difficulty breathing and wheezing. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

• A. Administer a bronchodilator
• B. Obtain a peak flow reading
• C. Provide supplemental oxygen
• D. Assess the client's respiratory rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a history of asthma experiencing difficulty breathing and wheezing, the priority nursing action is to administer a bronchodilator. This intervention helps relieve bronchospasm and improve the client's breathing. Obtaining a peak flow reading can provide additional information but is not the immediate priority in this situation. Providing supplemental oxygen may be needed but addressing the bronchospasm with a bronchodilator takes precedence. Assessing the client's respiratory rate is important but not as urgent as administering a bronchodilator to address the breathing difficulty.

2. A healthcare professional is planning teaching for a group of adolescents who each recently had surgical placement of an ostomy. Which of the following methods should the healthcare professional use as a psychomotor approach to learning?

• A. Practice sessions
• B. Demonstrations
• C. Written instructions
• D. Group discussions

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Practice sessions are an effective psychomotor approach to learning for adolescents with ostomies as they involve hands-on practice of ostomy care skills, which can help reinforce learning through active engagement. Demonstrations (choice B) can be helpful in providing visual guidance but may not offer the same level of active participation and practice as practice sessions. Written instructions (choice C) may be useful for reference but may not be as effective in developing psychomotor skills. Group discussions (choice D) focus more on verbal exchange and may not directly address the need for hands-on skill development required in managing ostomies. Therefore, practice sessions are the most suitable method for enhancing psychomotor learning in this scenario.

3. A client is scheduled for an IVP (Intravenous Pyelogram). Which of the following data from the client's history indicates a potential hazard for this test?

• A. Reflex incontinence
• B. Allergic to shellfish
• C. Claustrophobia
• D. Hypertension

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B, 'Allergic to shellfish.' An allergy to shellfish can indicate a sensitivity to iodine, which is used in the contrast dye for an IVP, posing a risk of an allergic reaction. Reflex incontinence (Choice A) is not directly related to the potential hazard of an IVP. Claustrophobia (Choice C) and hypertension (Choice D) are also not significant factors that indicate a potential hazard for an IVP.

4. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

5. Following change-of-shift report on an orthopedic unit, which client should the nurse see first?

• A. 16-year-old who had an open reduction of a fractured wrist 10 hours ago
• B. 20-year-old in skeletal traction for 2 weeks since a motorcycle accident
• C. 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago
• D. 75-year-old who is in skin traction prior to planned hip pinning surgery

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The 72-year-old recovering from surgery after a hip replacement 2 hours ago should be seen first due to the potential for immediate post-operative complications. This patient is in the immediate postoperative period and requires close monitoring for any signs of complications such as bleeding, infection, or impaired circulation. The other patients are relatively stable compared to the patient who just had surgery and therefore can wait for assessment and care without immediate risk. The 16-year-old had surgery ten hours ago, which is longer than the 72-year-old and is at a lower risk for immediate complications. The 20-year-old in skeletal traction for two weeks is stable in his current condition. The 75-year-old in skin traction before planned surgery does not require immediate attention as the surgery has not yet taken place.

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