HESI LPN
Practice HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client enters the emergency department unconscious via ambulance from the client's workplace. What document should be given priority to guide the direction of care for this client?
- A. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act
- B. Orders written by the healthcare provider
- C. A notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner
- D. The clinical pathway protocol of the agency and the emergency department
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, when the client is unconscious and unable to make decisions, a notarized original of advance directives brought in by the partner should be given priority to guide the direction of care. Advance directives provide legal documentation of the client's wishes regarding healthcare decisions in situations where they cannot express their preferences. The statement of client rights and the client self-determination act (Choice A) outlines general principles but does not provide specific guidance on the client's care. Orders written by the healthcare provider (Choice B) are important but may not reflect the client's preferences. Clinical pathway protocols (Choice D) are useful for standard care pathways but do not address individual client wishes.
2. During a neurological assessment, a healthcare provider is evaluating a client's balance. Which of the following examinations should the provider use for this purpose?
- A. Romberg test
- B. Deep tendon reflexes
- C. Mini-Mental State Examination
- D. Babinski reflex
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Romberg test is utilized to assess the client's balance and proprioception by having them stand with their eyes closed. This test helps evaluate sensory ataxia, a condition where an individual's balance is affected due to impaired sensory input. Deep tendon reflexes (Choice B) are assessed by tapping a tendon with a reflex hammer to evaluate the integrity of the spinal cord and peripheral nerves; this is not directly related to balance assessment. The Mini-Mental State Examination (Choice C) is a cognitive screening tool used to assess cognitive impairment or dementia, not balance. The Babinski reflex (Choice D) is elicited by stroking the sole of the foot to assess neurologic function, particularly in the corticospinal tract, and is not specific to balance evaluation.
3. A client is being discharged with a prescription for digoxin (Lanoxin). Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.
- B. Take an extra dose if you miss a dose of this medication.
- C. Take this medication with food.
- D. Avoid eating foods high in potassium while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Take your pulse daily before taking this medication.' It is essential for clients taking digoxin to monitor their pulse daily to detect bradycardia, a potential side effect. Choice B is incorrect because clients should never take an extra dose if a dose is missed; they should take the missed dose as soon as remembered unless it is close to the time for the next dose. Choice C is incorrect because digoxin is preferably taken with food to minimize gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect because digoxin itself can cause low potassium levels, so avoiding potassium-rich foods is not necessary.
4. When should discharge planning for a client experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure be initiated?
- A. During the admission process
- B. After the client is stabilized
- C. When the client expresses readiness to go home
- D. Just before the expected discharge date
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Discharge planning for a client with an exacerbation of heart failure should begin during the admission process. Initiating discharge planning early ensures a smooth transition and continuity of care for the client. Option B, after the client is stabilized, is not ideal because planning should start early to address potential barriers to discharge. Option C, when the client expresses readiness to go home, may be too late as discharge planning is a proactive process. Option D, just before the expected discharge date, does not allow enough time for comprehensive planning and coordination of post-discharge care needs.
5. A healthcare professional is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client’s arm prior to initiating IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the healthcare professional implement to prevent infection?
- A. Thread the catheter up to the hub
- B. Use a sterile technique throughout the procedure
- C. Clean the insertion site with alcohol only
- D. Use gloves but not a mask during the procedure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using a sterile technique throughout the procedure is essential to prevent infection when inserting an IV catheter. This includes maintaining aseptic conditions, using sterile equipment, and following proper hand hygiene practices. Choice A is incorrect because threading the catheter up to the hub does not specifically address infection prevention. Choice C is incorrect as cleaning the insertion site with alcohol only may not provide adequate disinfection, as it is essential to use an antiseptic solution to reduce microbial load. Choice D is incorrect as wearing gloves alone is not sufficient protection against infection; a mask should also be worn to prevent the spread of microorganisms through respiratory secretions.
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