Nursing Elites

1. When teaching adult cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) to a group of newly licensed nurses, what should the charge nurse instruct as the initial response in CPR?

• A. Confirm unresponsiveness
• B. Check for a pulse
• C. Begin chest compressions
• D. Call for emergency help

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response in CPR is to confirm unresponsiveness. This step is crucial to ensure that the person actually needs CPR before proceeding with further actions. Checking for unresponsiveness is essential to determine if the individual is in need of immediate assistance. Checking for a pulse or beginning chest compressions without confirming unresponsiveness could waste valuable time and potentially harm the individual. Calling for emergency help is important, but it should follow the confirmation of unresponsiveness to ensure timely activation of emergency services.

2. A mother of a child with a neural tube defect asks the nurse what she can do to decrease the chances of having another baby with a neural tube defect. What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.
• B. Multivitamin supplements are recommended during pregnancy.
• C. A well-balanced diet promotes normal fetal development.
• D. Increased dietary iron improves the health of mother and fetus.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Folic acid should be taken before and after conception.' Folic acid supplementation before and during early pregnancy has been shown to significantly reduce the risk of neural tube defects. Choice B is incorrect because while multivitamin supplements are beneficial during pregnancy, the specific focus for preventing neural tube defects is on folic acid. Choice C is a general statement about a well-balanced diet and does not specifically address neural tube defects. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses on dietary iron, which is important for overall health but not specifically proven to prevent neural tube defects.

3. When caring for a client with diarrhea due to shigellosis, what precautions should the nurse implement?

• A. Wear a gown when caring for the client.
• B. Wear gloves only.
• C. Use standard precautions only.
• D. Wear a mask and face shield.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to wear a gown when caring for the client. Shigellosis is highly contagious, and contact precautions are essential to prevent the spread of infection. Wearing gloves alone may not provide adequate protection as the client's diarrhea can contain infectious pathogens that can easily spread. Standard precautions include hand hygiene, but specific precautions for shigellosis require wearing a gown to protect against contact with infectious material. Wearing a mask and face shield are not necessary for shigellosis, as the primary mode of transmission is through the fecal-oral route, and these precautions are not indicated for this type of transmission.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a vest restraint. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

• A. Tie the restraint with a quick-release knot.
• B. Use a slipknot to secure the restraint.
• C. Ensure the restraint is tightly secured.
• D. Attach the restraint to the bed frame.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional to take when applying a vest restraint is to tie it with a quick-release knot. A quick-release knot allows for easy and rapid removal in case of an emergency, ensuring the safety of the client. Using a slipknot (Choice B) is not recommended as it may not provide quick release in emergencies. Ensuring the restraint is tightly secured (Choice C) can be dangerous as it can restrict circulation or cause discomfort. Attaching the restraint to the bed frame (Choice D) is inappropriate and can lead to potential harm or injury to the client.

5. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

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