Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.

2. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

• A. A 10-month-old infant can pull up to a standing position.
• B. A 6-month-old infant can walk with assistance.
• C. A 12-month-old infant can jump with both feet.
• D. An 8-month-old infant can crawl on hands and knees.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.

3. The healthcare provider is caring for a client receiving chemotherapy. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Mild nausea
• B. Hair loss
• C. Increased fatigue
• D. Fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever of 101.5°F (38.6°C) in a client undergoing chemotherapy is a significant finding that may indicate an underlying infection, which can be life-threatening due to the client's compromised immune system. Prompt reporting and intervention are crucial to prevent complications. Mild nausea, hair loss, and increased fatigue are common side effects of chemotherapy and are expected findings that do not typically require immediate reporting unless they are severe or significantly impacting the client's well-being. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should prioritize reporting the fever over the other options.

4. When preparing to apply dressing to a stage 2 pressure injury, which type of dressing should the nurse use?

• A. Hydrocolloid
• B. Gauze
• C. Transparent film
• D. Alginate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hydrocolloid. Hydrocolloid dressings are recommended for stage 2 pressure injuries as they help maintain a moist wound environment, which supports the healing process. Gauze (choice B) is not ideal for stage 2 pressure injuries as it can stick to the wound bed and disrupt the healing process. Transparent film dressings (choice C) are more suitable for superficial wounds or as a secondary dressing. Alginate dressings (choice D) are typically used for wounds with heavy exudate, which is not typically seen in stage 2 pressure injuries.

5. When entering the room of an adult male, the nurse finds that the client is very anxious. Before providing care, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Divert the client’s attention
• B. Call for additional help from staff
• C. Document the planned action
• D. Re-assess the client's situation

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Re-assessing the client's situation before providing care is the most appropriate action in this scenario. By re-evaluating the client, the nurse can better understand the cause of the anxiety and tailor the care accordingly. Diverting the client's attention (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue causing anxiety. Calling for additional help (Choice B) is not the initial step required unless there is an urgent need. Documenting the planned action (Choice C) should come after reassessing the client to ensure accuracy and relevance.

Similar Questions