HESI LPN
Fundamentals of Nursing HESI
1. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?
- A. Vitamin A
- B. Vitamin C
- C. Vitamin D
- D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.
2. A client is having difficulty breathing while laying in bed with a nasal cannula delivering oxygen. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take first?
- A. Suction the client's airway
- B. Administer a bronchodilator
- C. Increase the humidity in the client's room
- D. Assist the client to an upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to assist the client to an upright position. When a client is having difficulty breathing, promoting optimal oxygenation is essential. Elevating the head of the bed improves ventilation and lung expansion by reducing pressure on the diaphragm. This position allows the lungs to expand fully, enhancing oxygen exchange. Suctioning the airway may be necessary if there are secretions causing obstruction, but it is not the first intervention in this scenario. Administering a bronchodilator is appropriate for bronchoconstriction but does not address the immediate need for better ventilation. Increasing humidity can be beneficial in certain respiratory conditions, but it is not the initial priority when a client is struggling to breathe.
3. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?
- A. Droplet
- B. Contact
- C. Airborne
- D. Protective
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.
4. An older adult client has been hospitalized on bed rest for 1 week. The client reports elbow pain. Which of the following is an appropriate initial action for the nurse caring for this client to take?
- A. Examine the elbow
- B. Administer pain medication
- C. Apply a warm compress to the elbow
- D. Assess the client’s range of motion
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The appropriate initial action for the nurse is to examine the elbow. This step is crucial to assess the site of pain, identify any visible signs of injury or inflammation, and determine the cause of the discomfort. Administering pain medication (Choice B) should come after a thorough assessment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) might provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying cause. Assessing the client’s range of motion (Choice D) is important but would come after the initial examination to further evaluate the elbow joint.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing a client’s medications. They include cimetidine and imipramine. Knowing that cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, the healthcare professional should identify that this combination is likely to result in which of the following effects?
- A. Decreased therapeutic effects of cimetidine
- B. Increased risk of imipramine toxicity
- C. Decreased risk of adverse effects of cimetidine
- D. Increased therapeutic effects of imipramine
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When cimetidine decreases the metabolism of imipramine, it leads to an increased concentration of imipramine in the body, which can result in imipramine toxicity. This increased risk of toxicity is the likely effect of this drug interaction. Choice A is incorrect because cimetidine's effect on imipramine metabolism does not impact the therapeutic effects of cimetidine. Choice C is incorrect because the interaction does not decrease the risk of adverse effects of cimetidine. Choice D is incorrect as the increased concentration of imipramine can lead to toxicity, not increased therapeutic effects.
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