Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Ask the client to describe the voices and what they are saying.
• B. Tell the client that the voices are not real.
• C. Encourage the client to engage in reality-based activities.
• D. Ask the client to focus on positive thoughts instead of the voices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most appropriate nursing intervention for a client with schizophrenia experiencing auditory hallucinations is to encourage them to engage in reality-based activities. This intervention helps manage auditory hallucinations by redirecting the client's focus away from the hallucinations. Choice A is not recommended as it may exacerbate the hallucinations or distress the client. Choice B is incorrect because denying the reality of the voices can invalidate the client's experiences. Choice D, asking the client to focus on positive thoughts, may not be effective in addressing the auditory hallucinations directly.

2. A client is admitted to the mental health unit and sits in the corner of the day room. When the nurse begins the admission assessment interview, the client is guarded, suspicious, and resists talking. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Attempt to ask the client simple questions.
• B. Postpone the client interview until the next day.
• C. Ask another nurse to talk with the client.
• D. Document the client's paranoid behavior.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is guarded, suspicious, and resistant to talking, it is important for the nurse to attempt to ask the client simple questions. Simple questions can help build rapport, establish trust, and create a non-threatening environment. This approach may ease the client into more detailed discussions while reducing feelings of suspicion. Postponing the interview may increase the client's anxiety and distrust, while asking another nurse to talk with the client may disrupt continuity of care and the establishment of a therapeutic relationship. Documenting the client's behavior is important for the client's medical record, but it should not be the first action taken in this situation.

3. The LPN/LVN is caring for a client who has recently been diagnosed with bipolar disorder. The client asks, 'Why do I have to take medication every day?' What is the best response by the nurse?

• A. The medication will help stabilize your mood and prevent mood swings.
• B. You will need to take this medication for the rest of your life.
• C. The medication will help you feel better and more in control of your emotions.
• D. The medication is needed to control your symptoms and help you function better.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The best response by the nurse is to explain that the medication will help stabilize the client's mood and prevent mood swings. This response provides the client with a clear understanding of how the medication works in managing bipolar disorder. Choice B is not the best response as it may cause unnecessary worry about lifelong medication dependence. Choice C is not as specific in addressing the purpose of the medication for bipolar disorder. Choice D is not as focused on the effect of the medication on mood stabilization, which is crucial in managing bipolar disorder.

4. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
• B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
• D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
• C. Distract the client with other activities.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.

Similar Questions