Nursing Elites

1. A client who was diagnosed with oral thrush calls the clinic saying the medication bottle broke and all of the medication was spilled. The client is requesting a refill order. The nurse should contact the health care provider about a refill for which medication?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Neomycin sulfate
• D. Nystatin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nystatin is the appropriate medication for treating oral thrush as it is an antifungal drug specifically used for fungal infections. It targets the fungus responsible for thrush, Candida, effectively. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to request a refill of Nystatin for the client.

2. A client who takes metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is nothing by mouth (NPO) for surgery. What pre-op prescription should the practical nurse (PN) anticipate for this client's glucose management?

• A. NPO except for metformin and regular snacks
• B. NPO except for oral antidiabetic agent
• C. Novolin-N insulin subcutaneously twice daily
• D. Regular insulin subcutaneously per sliding scale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client taking metformin for diabetes mellitus type 2 is NPO for surgery, it is crucial to manage their glucose levels effectively. The best approach in this situation is to prescribe regular insulin subcutaneously according to a sliding scale based on the client's blood glucose levels. This method allows for precise adjustment of insulin doses to maintain blood glucose within the target range while the client is unable to take oral medications. Choices A and B are incorrect because metformin is typically held when a client is NPO, and oral antidiabetic agents may not provide sufficient glucose control. Choice C is incorrect as Novolin-N insulin given twice daily may not offer the flexibility needed for glucose management in a surgical setting where the client's intake is restricted.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: When a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed saxagliptin, it is crucial to instruct them to report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Saxagliptin can lead to pancreatitis as a side effect, making it essential for clients to be vigilant about recognizing and reporting any related symptoms promptly for timely intervention and management. Choice B is incorrect because saxagliptin can be taken with or without meals. Choice C is not specifically associated with saxagliptin use. Choice D is incorrect as heart failure is not a common side effect of saxagliptin.

4. A postoperative client has a prescription for ketorolac 30mg IV q6h. Which response demonstrates that therapeutic levels of the medication have been achieved?

• A. Observe wound drainage for a change in appearance
• B. Assess the client's calves for inflammation
• C. Perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale
• D. Measure the client's intake and output

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response is to perform a pain assessment using a numeric scale. Ketorolac is an NSAID prescribed for pain relief. Monitoring pain levels is crucial to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of the medication. Pain assessment helps determine if the medication is providing adequate pain relief, indicating that therapeutic levels have been achieved.

5. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

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