Nursing Elites

1. A client who was diagnosed with oral thrush calls the clinic saying the medication bottle broke and all of the medication was spilled. The client is requesting a refill order. The nurse should contact the health care provider about a refill for which medication?

• A. Ampicillin
• B. Ciprofloxacin
• C. Neomycin sulfate
• D. Nystatin

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Nystatin is the appropriate medication for treating oral thrush as it is an antifungal drug specifically used for fungal infections. It targets the fungus responsible for thrush, Candida, effectively. Therefore, the nurse should contact the healthcare provider to request a refill of Nystatin for the client.

2. Escitalopram is prescribed for a 16-year-old adolescent client who is clinically depressed. Five days later, the parent tells the practical nurse (PN) that the drug is not working because their child is not feeling any better. Which explanation should the PN provide?

• A. It takes 1 to 4 weeks for antidepressant medications to become effective.
• B. The dosage may need to be increased; I will contact your health care provider.
• C. Depression is difficult to treat with drugs alone. Therapy sessions would enhance their effectiveness.
• D. Based on your child's response to this drug, the health care provider is reviewing your medication regimen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Antidepressant medications typically require 1 to 4 weeks to reach their full therapeutic effect. It is crucial to educate the family that during the initial week of treatment, the child may experience heightened anxiety. Therefore, it is important to wait for the medication to take its full course before assessing its effectiveness.

3. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Family history of hypertension
• C. History of erectile dysfunction
• D. Baseline weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed liraglutide. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Administer this medication once a week.
• B. Administer this medication once a month.
• C. Administer this medication twice a day.
• D. Administer this medication once a day.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer liraglutide once a day. Liraglutide is typically prescribed to be taken once daily, as directed by the healthcare provider. This dosing schedule helps maintain consistent levels of the medication in the body to effectively manage blood sugar levels in clients with diabetes mellitus type 2. Option A, administering once a week, is incorrect as it would not provide consistent control of blood sugar levels. Option B, administering once a month, is also incorrect as it is not the recommended dosing frequency for liraglutide. Option C, administering twice a day, is inaccurate as liraglutide is not typically dosed in this manner. It is important for the nurse to emphasize the importance of adherence to the prescribed dosing regimen to achieve optimal therapeutic outcomes.

5. The practical nurse is assigned a client on digoxin therapy. Which finding is likely to predispose this client to developing digoxin toxicity?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypernatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hypokalemia predisposes a client on digoxin to digoxin toxicity. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity include abdominal pain, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, bradycardia, and atrioventricular (AV) dissociation. Therefore, assessment of serum potassium levels and prompt correction of hypokalemia are crucial interventions for clients taking digoxin.

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