a client is to receive cimetidine tagamet 300 mg q6h ivp the preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 09 nacl the lpn plans to admini
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HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank

1. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

2. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

3. During an eye assessment, what action should the nurse take to assess a client's extraocular eye movements?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Instructing the client to follow a finger through the six cardinal positions of gaze is the correct action to assess extraocular eye movements effectively. This technique evaluates the function of the six extraocular muscles and cranial nerves III, IV, and VI. Positioning the client 6.1 m away from the Snellen chart is more relevant for visual acuity testing. Asking the client to cover their right eye during the assessment is not necessary for evaluating extraocular movements. Holding a finger at a specific distance in front of the client's eye is not an appropriate method for assessing extraocular eye movements.

4. A client is being admitted to a same-day surgery center for an exploratory laparotomy procedure. The surgeon asks the nurse to witness the signing of the preoperative consent form. In signing the form as a witness, the nurse affirms that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because as a witness, the nurse's primary responsibility is to confirm that the signature on the preoperative consent form belongs to the client. The nurse is not confirming the client's understanding of the procedure (Choice A), but rather the authenticity of the signature. Choice C is incorrect because the nurse is not responsible for verifying that the procedure has been explained, but rather confirming the client's signature. Similarly, Choice D is incorrect because the nurse's role as a witness is not to ensure the client is aware of potential complications, but to verify the signature.

5. When interviewing the parents of a child with asthma, what information about the child's environment should be gathered most importantly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing a child with asthma, it is crucial to gather information about potential triggers in their environment. Household pets, such as cats or dogs, are common triggers for asthma attacks due to pet dander and saliva. This information is essential to identify if exposure to pets at home could be exacerbating the child's asthma symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are less relevant in the context of asthma triggers. New furniture, lead-based paint, and plants like cactus are not typically primary triggers for asthma attacks compared to common allergens like pet dander.

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