Nursing Elites

1. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 150
• B. 50
• C. 100
• D. 75

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

2. Which nursing action prevents injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops?

• A. Holding the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac
• B. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration
• C. Placing the client in a supine position
• D. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct nursing action to prevent injury to a client's eye during the administration of eye drops is to hold the tip of the container above the conjunctival sac. This technique helps to prevent direct contact between the container and the eye, reducing the risk of injury. Rinsing the eye with saline before administration (Choice B) is not a standard practice and may not necessarily prevent injury. Placing the client in a supine position (Choice C) is not directly related to preventing eye injury during eye drop administration. Pressing gently on the lower eyelid to open the eye (Choice D) is not recommended as it can potentially cause injury or discomfort to the client.

3. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker. Which side effect should the LPN/LVN monitor for in this client?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Insomnia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct side effect that the LPN/LVN should monitor for in a client prescribed a beta-blocker is bradycardia. Beta-blockers work by slowing down the heart rate, which can lead to bradycardia as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's heart rate is crucial, as bradycardia can be a serious condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increased appetite, dry mouth, and insomnia are not typically associated with beta-blockers. Increased appetite is more commonly linked to certain medications like corticosteroids, dry mouth can be a side effect of anticholinergic medications, and insomnia may be a side effect of stimulant medications.

4. A client is being taught how to care for their tracheostomy at home. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Use tracheostomy covers when outdoors.
• B. Clean the tracheostomy site with hydrogen peroxide daily.
• C. Change the tracheostomy tube weekly.
• D. Apply ointment around the tracheostomy site.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction is to use tracheostomy covers when outdoors. Tracheostomy covers serve to protect the airway from environmental contaminants, reducing the risk of infection. Choice B is incorrect because hydrogen peroxide can be irritating to the skin and is not recommended for cleaning the tracheostomy site. Choice C is incorrect as tracheostomy tubes should not be routinely changed weekly unless there is a specific medical indication. Changing it without a need can introduce infection or damage the stoma. Choice D is incorrect as applying ointment around the tracheostomy site can lead to occlusion of the stoma and interfere with breathing.

5. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed a diuretic. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Monitor serum calcium levels.
• B. Monitor serum potassium levels.
• C. Monitor serum sodium levels.
• D. Monitor serum magnesium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor serum potassium levels. When a client is prescribed a diuretic, monitoring serum potassium levels is essential to evaluate the medication's effectiveness and to detect potential electrolyte imbalances. Diuretics can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia, which can have serious consequences such as cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not typically required when assessing the effectiveness of diuretics. Similarly, monitoring serum sodium levels (Choice C) is important for other conditions but is not the primary concern when evaluating diuretic therapy. Monitoring serum magnesium levels (Choice D) is also important, but potassium levels are more critical in assessing diuretic effectiveness and preventing complications.

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