Nursing Elites

1. During the check-up of a 2-month-old infant at a well-baby clinic, the mother expresses concern to the nurse because a flat pink birthmark on the baby's forehead and eyelid has not gone away. What is an appropriate response by the nurse?

• A. Mongolian spots are a normal finding in dark-skinned infants.
• B. Port wine stains are typically associated with other malformations.
• C. Telangiectatic nevi are normal and will disappear as the baby grows.
• D. The child is too young for surgical removal of these at this time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Telangiectatic nevi, often referred to as 'stork bites,' are common birthmarks in infants and are considered normal. These birthmarks usually fade and disappear as the child grows older. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Mongolian spots are bluish-gray birthmarks commonly found in darker-skinned infants, port wine stains are vascular birthmarks that typically do not disappear, and surgical removal is not recommended for telangiectatic nevi as they usually resolve on their own.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV fluids to a client. The professional notes sparks when plugging in the IV pump. Which of the following actions should the professional take first?

• A. Label the pump with a defective equipment sticker.
• B. Unplug the pump.
• C. Obtain a replacement pump.
• D. Notify the maintenance department to fix the pump.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Unplugging the pump is the correct initial action in this situation to prevent any potential fire hazards. Sparks when plugging in the IV pump indicate an electrical issue that can lead to a fire. By immediately unplugging the pump, the healthcare professional ensures the safety of the client and prevents any further risks. Labeling the pump with a defective equipment sticker (Choice A) is not the priority as the immediate concern is safety. Obtaining a replacement pump (Choice C) can be considered after addressing the safety issue. Notifying the maintenance department (Choice D) is important but should follow the immediate action of unplugging the pump to mitigate the risk.

3. A client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client is short of breath and has a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Increase the oxygen flow rate to 4 liters per minute.
• B. Reposition the client to a high Fowler's position.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's condition.
• D. Encourage the client to use pursed-lip breathing.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Repositioning the client to a high Fowler's position should be the first action taken by the LPN. This position helps improve oxygenation by maximizing lung expansion, making it easier for the client to breathe. Increasing the oxygen flow rate without addressing positioning may not fully optimize oxygen delivery. Notifying the healthcare provider should come after immediate interventions. Encouraging pursed-lip breathing is beneficial but should follow the initial positioning to further assist the client in managing their breathing difficulty.

4. A client is receiving chemotherapy for breast cancer. Which laboratory value would be most important for the nurse to monitor?

• A. White blood cell count
• B. Hemoglobin level
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Blood glucose level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the white blood cell count. Chemotherapy can lead to neutropenia, which is a decrease in white blood cells, particularly neutrophils. Neutropenia increases the risk of infections, making it crucial to monitor the white blood cell count during chemotherapy. Monitoring hemoglobin level is important but not as critical as white blood cell count in this scenario. Serum creatinine and blood glucose levels are not directly impacted by chemotherapy for breast cancer, making them less relevant to monitor in this situation.

5. A male client being discharged with a prescription for the bronchodilator theophylline tells the nurse that he understands he is to take three doses of the medication each day. Since timed-release capsules are not available at the time of discharge, which dosing schedule should the LPN advise the client to follow?

• A. 9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.
• B. 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight.
• C. Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner.
• D. With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct dosing schedule for the client to follow is to take the medication at 8 a.m., 4 p.m., and midnight. This timing spaces the doses evenly over the waking hours, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication. Choice A (9 a.m., 1 p.m., and 5 p.m.) does not evenly distribute the doses throughout the day. Choices C (Before breakfast, before lunch, and before dinner) and D (With breakfast, with lunch, and with dinner) do not provide the required frequency of dosing needed for optimal therapeutic effect.

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