Nursing Elites

1. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Headache
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Constipation
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed clozapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Weight gain
• D. Hypersalivation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is Agranulocytosis. Clozapine is known to potentially cause agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a dangerously low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts is crucial to detect this side effect early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and hypersalivation are not typically associated with clozapine use. While dry mouth can be a common side effect of some antipsychotic medications, it is not specifically linked to clozapine. Weight gain can occur with certain antipsychotics, but clozapine is more commonly associated with metabolic side effects. Hypersalivation is not a common side effect of clozapine.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed diltiazem. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Headache
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Diltiazem is a calcium channel blocker that can cause hypotension by relaxing blood vessels and reducing blood pressure. Monitoring blood pressure is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because diltiazem typically does not cause tachycardia, headache, or hyperglycemia as common side effects.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed canagliflozin. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Report any signs of urinary tract infection.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• D. Avoid taking this medication with grapefruit juice.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the client's teaching plan is to report any signs of urinary tract infection. Canagliflozin, a medication used in diabetes mellitus type 2, can increase the risk of urinary tract infections. Instructing the client to report any signs of infection is crucial for early intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because there is no specific requirement to take canagliflozin with meals, avoid alcohol, or restrict grapefruit juice consumption while on this medication.

5. The practical nurse (PN) is obtaining the medical history of a client starting a new prescription for conjugated estrogens PO daily. Which medical condition is not treated by this medication?

• A. Menopausal symptoms
• B. Prostatic cancer
• C. Thromboembolic diseases
• D. Abnormal uterine bleeding

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Conjugated estrogens, such as Premarin, are not used in the treatment of thromboembolic diseases. These medications are contraindicated in conditions predisposing to thromboembolic diseases due to their association with an increased risk of thromboembolism, stroke, pulmonary embolism, and myocardial infarction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because conjugated estrogens are commonly prescribed for managing menopausal symptoms, abnormal uterine bleeding, and certain hormone-responsive cancers, but not for thromboembolic diseases.

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