HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Ketonuria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.
2. While assessing an older client’s fall risk, the client tells the nurse that they live at home alone and have never fallen. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on their age
- B. Continue to obtain the client data needed to complete the fall risk survey
- C. Inform the client about falls occurring more often at the hospital than at home
- D. Record a minimal risk for falls based on the client's statement alone
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse in this scenario is to continue obtaining client data to complete the fall risk survey. This approach will help in conducting a comprehensive assessment of the client's risk factors. Placing the client on a high fall risk protocol solely based on age without a thorough assessment is premature and can lead to unnecessary interventions. Informing the client about falls in the hospital does not address the client's individual risk factors and is not relevant to the current assessment. Recording a minimal risk for falls based only on the client's statement may overlook other potential risk factors that need to be evaluated.
3. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?
- A. Inability to touch their toes
- B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
- C. Audible crepitus when bending
- D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.
4. A client has a history of vasovagal attacks resulting in brady-dysrhythmias. Which instruction is most important to include in the teaching plan?
- A. Use stool softeners regularly
- B. Avoid electromagnetic fields
- C. Maintain a low-fat diet
- D. Do not use aspirin products
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Use stool softeners regularly.' Vasovagal attacks can be triggered by straining, and using stool softeners can help prevent such attacks. Choices B, C, and D are not directly related to preventing vasovagal attacks in this context. Avoiding electromagnetic fields, maintaining a low-fat diet, or not using aspirin products are important for various health reasons but not specifically for preventing vasovagal attacks related to brady-dysrhythmias.
5. A client who received multiple antihypertensive medications experiences syncope due to a drop in blood pressure to 70/40. What is the rationale for the nurse’s decision to hold the client’s scheduled antihypertensive medication?
- A. Increased urinary clearance of the multiple medications has led to diuresis and lowered the blood pressure.
- B. The antagonistic interaction among the various blood pressure medications has reduced their effectiveness.
- C. The additive effect of multiple medications has caused the blood pressure to drop too low.
- D. The synergistic effect of the multiple medications has resulted in drug toxicity and resulting hypotension.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. When a client experiences syncope due to a significant drop in blood pressure after receiving multiple antihypertensive medications, the additive effect of these medications can cause the blood pressure to drop excessively. This additive effect can lead to hypotension, which is why the nurse decided to hold the client's scheduled antihypertensive medication. Choices A, B, and D provide incorrect rationales. Choice A mentions diuresis, which is not directly related to the drop in blood pressure due to additive medication effects. Choice B refers to an antagonistic interaction reducing effectiveness, which is not applicable in this scenario. Choice D talks about a synergistic effect leading to drug toxicity, which is not the cause of the sudden drop in blood pressure observed in the client.
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