HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Ketonuria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.
2. Several clients on a telemetry unit are scheduled for discharge in the morning, but a telemetry-monitored bed is needed immediately. The charge nurse should make arrangements to transfer which client to another medical unit? The client who is
- A. Learning to self-administer insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus
- B. Ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago.
- C. Wearing a sling immobilizer following permanent pacemaker insertion earlier that day
- D. Experiencing syncopal episodes resulting from dehydration caused by severe diarrhea
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client who is ambulatory following coronary artery bypass graft surgery performed six days ago is stable enough for transfer compared to the other clients. Choice A should not be transferred as the client is still in the learning phase of self-administering insulin injections after being diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, requiring close monitoring. Choice C should not be transferred immediately after having a permanent pacemaker insertion as they need telemetry monitoring for any complications. Choice D should not be transferred as the client is experiencing syncopal episodes due to dehydration caused by severe diarrhea, requiring immediate intervention and close monitoring on the telemetry unit.
3. In Duchenne muscular dystrophy, if a child has a Gower sign, what behavior should the nurse expect the child to exhibit?
- A. Stands from sitting on the floor by using hands to walk up legs
- B. Exhibits muscular atrophy of upper and lower extremities
- C. Is unable to stand because of contractures of both hips
- D. Walks with an unsteady gait and slaps feet on the floor
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Gower sign is a characteristic finding in Duchenne muscular dystrophy where a child uses hands to walk up the legs when standing from a sitting position due to proximal muscle weakness. This behavior is indicative of the child trying to compensate for weak hip and thigh muscles. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not describe the specific behavior associated with the Gower sign. Muscular atrophy, contractures of both hips, and an unsteady gait with foot slapping are not directly related to the Gower sign.
4. A 14-year-old male client with a spinal cord injury (SCI) at T-10 is admitted for rehabilitation. During the morning assessment, the nurse determines that the adolescent's face is flushed, his forehead is sweating, his heart rate is 54 beats/min, and his blood pressure is 198/118. What action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Determine if the urinary bladder is distended
- B. Irrigate the indwelling urinary catheter
- C. Review the temperature graph for the last day
- D. Administer an antihypertensive agent
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Autonomic dysreflexia is a potentially life-threatening emergency that can be triggered by a distended bladder in clients with spinal cord injuries at T-6 or above. The priority action is to determine if the urinary bladder is distended as this could be the cause of the symptoms observed in the adolescent. Flushing, sweating, bradycardia, and severe hypertension are classic signs of autonomic dysreflexia. Irrigating the urinary catheter, reviewing temperature graphs, or administering an antihypertensive agent are not the initial actions to take when suspecting autonomic dysreflexia.
5. Which instruction is most important for the client who receives a new prescription for risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis?
- A. Remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication
- B. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin D
- C. Begin a low-impact exercise routine
- D. Take the medication with a full glass of water
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important instruction for a client receiving risedronate sodium to treat osteoporosis is to remain upright for 30 minutes after taking the medication. Risedronate sodium can cause esophageal irritation, and staying upright helps prevent this side effect. While increasing vitamin D intake, starting a low-impact exercise routine, and taking the medication with a full glass of water are all beneficial for managing osteoporosis, the immediate need is to prevent esophageal irritation caused by risedronate sodium.
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