HESI LPN
CAT Exam Practice
1. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Hypokalemia
- B. Ketonuria
- C. Peripheral edema
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.
2. What nursing intervention is particularly indicated for the second stage of labor?
- A. Providing pain medication to increase the client’s tolerance of labor
- B. Assessing the fetal heart rate and pattern for signs of fetal distress
- C. Monitoring effects of oxytocin administration to help achieve cervical dilation
- D. Assisting the client to push effectively so that the expulsion of the fetus can be achieved
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During the second stage of labor, assisting the client to push effectively is crucial for the delivery of the fetus. This action helps to facilitate the expulsion of the fetus from the uterus. Providing pain medication (Choice A) is not typically done during the second stage of labor as the focus shifts to pushing and delivery. Assessing the fetal heart rate (Choice B) is important but is more relevant throughout labor, not specifically for the second stage. Monitoring the effects of oxytocin administration (Choice C) is more associated with the first stage of labor to help with uterine contractions and cervical dilation.
3. Following an open reduction and internal fixation of a compound fracture of the leg, a male client complains of “a tingly sensation” in his left foot. The nurse determines the client’s left pedal pulses are diminished. Based on these findings, what is the client’s greatest risk?
- A. Reduce pulmonary ventilation and oxygenation related to fat embolism.
- B. Neurovascular and circulation compromise related to compartment syndrome.
- C. Wound infection and delayed healing due to fractured bone protrusion.
- D. Venous stasis and thrombophlebitis related to postoperative immobility.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition that can occur following trauma or surgery, leading to compromised neurovascular status in the affected limb. Symptoms include pain, paresthesia (tingling sensation), and diminished pulses. If left untreated, compartment syndrome can result in tissue damage and potential loss of limb function. Options A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not directly address the neurovascular compromise associated with compartment syndrome.
4. At 1130, the nurse assumes care of an adult client with diabetes mellitus who was admitted with an infected foot ulcer. After reviewing the client’s electronic health record, which priority nursing action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer insulin based on the sliding scale
- B. Assess the appearance of the foot wound
- C. Obtain antibiotic peak and trough levels
- D. Initiate hourly measurements of urine output
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Assessing the appearance of the foot wound is the priority action in this scenario. This assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of infection progression or complications related to the foot ulcer, especially in a client with diabetes mellitus. Administering insulin based on the sliding scale (Choice A) is important but not the immediate priority compared to assessing the foot wound. Obtaining antibiotic peak and trough levels (Choice C) is relevant but not as immediate as assessing the wound for signs of infection. Initiating hourly measurements of urine output (Choice D) is not the priority when compared to assessing the foot wound in a client with an infected foot ulcer.
5. A male client, admitted to the mental health unit for a somatoform disorder, becomes angry because he cannot have his pain medication. He demands that the nurse call the healthcare provider and threatens to leave the hospital. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Place the client in seclusion per unit guidelines
- B. Administer a PRN prescription for lorazepam (Ativan)
- C. Call security to help ensure staff and client safety
- D. Ask what other methods he uses to deal with pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should prioritize ensuring safety. When a client becomes aggressive and threatens to leave, calling security is crucial to help maintain a safe environment for both staff and the client. Placing the client in seclusion (choice A) is not the appropriate initial action as it may escalate the situation further. Administering lorazepam (choice B) should not be the first response to behavioral issues. Asking about other pain management methods (choice D) is not the immediate priority when safety is at risk.
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