Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider prescribes potassium chloride 25 mEq in 500 ml D5W to infuse over 6 hours. The available 20 ml vial of potassium chloride is labeled '10 mEq/5 ml.' How many ml of potassium chloride should the nurse add to the IV fluid?

• A. 12.5
• B. 5
• C. 10
• D. 20

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To prepare 25 mEq of potassium chloride for the infusion, the nurse should add 5 ml of the 10 mEq/5 ml solution. This concentration provides the required amount of potassium chloride without exceeding the needed volume. Choice A would result in 12.5 mEq, which exceeds the prescribed amount. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the vial concentration.

2. The nurse plans to collect a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the adult male client?

• A. Urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours.
• B. Cleanse around the meatus, discard the first portion of voiding, and collect the rest in a sterile bottle.
• C. For the next 24 hours, notify the nurse when the bladder is full, and the nurse will collect catheterized specimens.
• D. Urinate immediately into a urinal, and the lab will collect the specimen every 6 hours for the next 24 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the adult male client to follow when collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for a creatinine clearance test is to urinate at the specified time, discard this urine, and collect all subsequent urine over the next 24 hours. This method ensures proper collection for an accurate creatinine clearance measurement. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different procedure for a clean-catch urine sample, not suitable for creatinine clearance. Choice C is incorrect as it suggests catheterization, which is not typically done for a creatinine clearance test, and it is not necessary for this procedure. Choice D is incorrect as it does not follow the standard procedure for a 24-hour urine collection for creatinine clearance; the urine should be collected continuously over 24 hours, not at specified intervals.

3. The school nurse is screening students for spinal abnormalities and instructs each student to stand up and then touch their toes. Which finding indicates that a student should be referred for scoliosis evaluation?

• A. Inability to touch their toes
• B. Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright
• C. Audible crepitus when bending
• D. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asymmetry of the shoulders when standing upright is a common indicator of scoliosis. This finding suggests a possible spinal abnormality and should prompt further evaluation. Choices A, C, and D are not specific indicators of scoliosis. Inability to touch their toes may indicate flexibility issues or tightness in the hamstrings. Audible crepitus when bending may suggest joint degeneration or inflammation. An exaggerated upper thoracic convex curvature could indicate poor posture or other spinal abnormalities but is not directly indicative of scoliosis.

4. The nurse assesses a client one hour after starting a transfusion of packed red blood cells and determines that there are no indications of a transfusion reaction. What instructions should the nurse provide the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is working with the nurse?

• A. Continue to measure the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete
• B. Since a reaction did not occur, the priority is to maintain client comfort during the transfusion
• C. Monitor the client carefully for the next three hours and report the onset of a reaction immediately
• D. Notify the nurse when the transfusion has finished, so further client assessment can be done

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP is to continue measuring the client’s vital signs every thirty minutes until the transfusion is complete. This is important because continuous monitoring of vital signs during the transfusion helps detect any delayed reactions promptly. Choice B is incorrect because maintaining client comfort is important but not the priority over monitoring vital signs. Choice C is incorrect as monitoring should be ongoing and not limited to a specific time frame. Choice D is incorrect as the UAP should monitor vital signs throughout the transfusion, not just at the end.

5. The nurse is caring for a group of clients with the help of a practical nurse (PN). Which nursing actions should the nurse assign to the PN? (Select all that apply)

• A. Administer a dose of insulin per sliding scale for a client with type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM)
• B. Obtain postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty
• C. Perform daily surgical dressing change for a client who had an abdominal hysterectomy
• D. Initiate patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pumps for two clients immediately postoperative

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Obtaining postoperative vital signs for a client one day following unilateral knee arthroplasty is a task within the scope of practice for a practical nurse (PN) and contributes to the client's recovery. Administering insulin (Choice A) involves medication administration, which typically requires a higher level of nursing education. Performing daily surgical dressing changes (Choice C) after an abdominal hysterectomy involves wound care management that is usually beyond the scope of practice for a PN. Initiating patient-controlled analgesia pumps (Choice D) is a complex nursing intervention that requires specialized training and knowledge, exceeding the typical responsibilities of a PN.

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