HESI LPN
HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank
1. What instructions should the practical nurse (PN) review with a client diagnosed with vaginal trichomoniasis who is prescribed oral metronidazole?
- A. Avoid direct sunlight exposure and use a sunscreen product with SPF100.
- B. The client's sexual partner(s) should also be treated.
- C. Avoid vinegar or commercial product douches.
- D. Eliminate dairy products from the diet during treatment.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The practical nurse should instruct the client that their sexual partner(s) should also be treated when dealing with vaginal trichomoniasis. This is crucial to prevent reinfection as sexual intercourse is the route of spread for this infection. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. While avoiding direct sunlight exposure and using sunscreen is important for some medications, it is not specifically related to metronidazole treatment for trichomoniasis. Avoiding vinegar or commercial douches is a general recommendation for vaginal health and not specific to this infection. Eliminating dairy products from the diet is not a typical instruction for clients prescribed metronidazole for vaginal trichomoniasis.
2. A client undergoing hemodialysis for chronic kidney disease is taking the medication erythropoietin. The nurse should reinforce instructions to explain for which reason this medication is prescribed?
- A. This drug prevents infections associated with dialysis.
- B. This drug prevents deep vein thrombosis in older clients.
- C. This drug helps stimulate the production of red blood cells.
- D. This drug helps balance the level of phosphorus in the body.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Erythropoietin is prescribed to stimulate the production of red blood cells. Clients undergoing hemodialysis often develop anemia due to end-stage renal disease. Erythropoietin helps correct this anemia by stimulating red blood cell production. It is not used to prevent infections associated with dialysis, prevent deep vein thrombosis, or balance phosphorus levels in the body.
3. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.
4. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.
5. A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?
- A. I will take my medicine at 10 PM before retiring to bed.
- B. The medication will turn the color of my urine to a pink color.
- C. I should not eat or drink anything for at least 2 hours before taking my medicine.
- D. In the event a seizure occurs in the middle of the day, I need to take an extra dose of my medicine.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality. Choice B is incorrect because phenobarbital does not affect the color of urine. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to fast before taking phenobarbital. Choice D is incorrect because taking extra doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to overdose and adverse effects.
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