Nursing Elites

1. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?

• A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
• B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
• C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
• D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.

2. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

3. What are the sources of information about the family?

• A. Interview results with members of the family
• B. Family folder
• C. Actual observation of the family situation
• D. All these sources of information

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed sources - interview results with family members, family folder, and actual observation of the family situation - provide comprehensive information about the family. Choice A alone (interview results) might not capture the complete picture of the family, as it may be biased or limited. Choice B (family folder) could contain valuable information but might not be up to date or comprehensive. Choice C (actual observation) is essential to understand the family dynamics, but it alone may not provide all the necessary information. Therefore, the combination of all these sources (D) is needed for a thorough understanding of the family.

4. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

5. The nurse-manager is planning to transform safety ideas into prevention and protection strategies in the workplace. What committee should review and plan policies and education about safety in the workplace?

• A. policy and procedures committee
• B. quality assurance committee
• C. education committee
• D. ethics committee

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The quality assurance committee is responsible for reviewing and planning policies and education related to workplace safety. This committee focuses on ensuring the quality of care and services provided, which includes implementing safety measures. The policy and procedures committee primarily deals with developing and maintaining organizational policies and procedures. The education committee focuses on educational programs and initiatives, not specifically on safety policies. The ethics committee is concerned with ethical issues and dilemmas, not safety policies and education.

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