HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Exam
1. A client comes into the community health center upset and crying stating, “I will die of cancer now that I have this disease.” And then the client hands the nurse a paper with one word written on it: 'Pheochromocytoma.' Which response should the nurse state initially?
- A. 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant). But they may be associated with cancerous tumors in other endocrine glands such as the thyroid (medullary carcinoma of the thyroid).'
- B. 'This problem is diagnosed by blood and urine tests that reveal elevated levels of adrenaline and noradrenaline.'
- C. 'Computerized tomography (CT) or magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) are used to detect an adrenal tumor.'
- D. 'You probably have had episodes of sweating, heart pounding, and headaches.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct initial response for the nurse to provide in this situation is to offer reassurance. Stating that 'Pheochromocytomas usually aren't cancerous (malignant)' helps to alleviate the client's anxiety and fear of having cancer. This response also establishes a foundation for further discussion about the condition, allowing the nurse to address the client's concerns and provide accurate information. Choice B is incorrect as it focuses solely on the diagnostic tests for pheochromocytoma but does not address the client's emotional distress. Choice C is incorrect as it discusses imaging modalities without directly addressing the client's concerns. Choice D is also incorrect as it assumes symptoms without first addressing the client's emotional state and fear of cancer.
2. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?
- A. Health education
- B. Regular exercise
- C. Screening tests
- D. Physical therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.
3. When the nurse identifies what appears to be ventricular tachycardia on the cardiac monitor of a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction, the first action the nurse should perform is to
- A. Begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
- B. Prepare for immediate defibrillation
- C. Notify the 'Code' team and healthcare provider
- D. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when identifying what appears to be ventricular tachycardia in a client being evaluated for possible myocardial infarction is to assess the client's airway, breathing, and circulation. This step is crucial to determine the client's stability and the need for immediate intervention. Beginning cardiopulmonary resuscitation or preparing for immediate defibrillation without first assessing the airway, breathing, and circulation could delay potentially life-saving interventions. Notifying the 'Code' team and healthcare provider should come after ensuring the client's immediate needs are addressed.
4. After 3 days, the nurse notes that James has chest indrawing and stridor. His mother returned him to the health center immediately. The nurse should:
- A. Change the antibiotic to second-line antibiotics
- B. Advise the mother to observe the child and continue giving the antibiotics
- C. Give the first dose of antibiotics and refer urgently
- D. Observe the child at the center
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Chest indrawing and stridor are signs of severe respiratory distress. In this situation, immediate referral is essential. Giving the first dose of antibiotics before referral can help initiate treatment, but urgent referral for further evaluation and management is crucial. Choice A is incorrect because simply changing the antibiotic without assessing the severity of the symptoms and providing urgent care is not appropriate. Choice B is incorrect as advising the mother to observe the child and continue antibiotics delays necessary intervention for a potentially life-threatening condition. Choice D is incorrect as observing the child at the center is not sufficient when signs of severe illness are present.
5. When planning the care for a young adult client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of these concerns should the nurse determine to be the priority for long term mobility?
- A. Digestive problems
- B. Amenorrhea
- C. Electrolyte imbalance
- D. Blood disorders
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a common long-term consequence of anorexia nervosa due to low body weight and hormonal imbalances. Addressing amenorrhea is crucial for the patient's overall health and reproductive potential. Choice A, Digestive problems, may also be a concern in anorexia nervosa, but in terms of long-term mobility, amenorrhea takes priority because of its impact on hormonal balance and bone health. Choice C, Electrolyte imbalance, is important to address in anorexia nervosa due to potential cardiac complications, but it is not directly linked to long-term mobility concerns. Choice D, Blood disorders, while they can occur in anorexia nervosa, are not as directly related to long-term mobility as amenorrhea, which can significantly affect bone health and mobility in the future.
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