Nursing Elites

1. A client presents at a community-based clinic with complaints of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea. During the assessment, the nurse learns that the client is a migrant worker who often uses a gasoline-powered pressure washer to clean equipment and farm buildings. Which type of poisoning is the most likely etiology of this client's symptoms?

• A. asbestos
• B. silica dust
• C. histoplasmosis
• D. carbon monoxide

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of shortness of breath, headache, dizziness, and nausea are indicative of carbon monoxide poisoning, which can result from exposure to gasoline-powered equipment like pressure washers. Asbestos (Choice A) exposure would typically present with respiratory issues and cancer but not the rapid onset of symptoms described. Silica dust (Choice B) exposure is associated with respiratory conditions like silicosis, not the multisystem symptoms in the scenario. Histoplasmosis (Choice C) is a fungal infection that primarily affects the lungs and is not related to the client's exposure to a gasoline-powered pressure washer.

2. As of 2002, the following data was obtained from municipality X: No. of live births - 750, No. of infant deaths - 10, No. of maternal deaths - 6, Total population - 25,000. The 2002 maternal mortality rate of municipality X is:

• A. 15/1000 live births
• B. 12.5/1000 live births
• C. 6/1000 live births
• D. 8/1000 live births

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The maternal mortality rate is calculated as 6 maternal deaths per 1000 live births. The correct answer is C because to calculate the maternal mortality rate, you divide the number of maternal deaths by the number of live births and then multiply by 1000. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not match the given data on maternal deaths and live births for municipality X.

3. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

• A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
• B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
• C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

4. Which of the following statements is correct regarding community health nursing?

• A. Evaluation of the health status of individuals and families should be done in consultation with them.
• B. The public health nurse (PHN) who works with communication for 6 can solely determine the needs of the community.
• C. Provision of PHN care is not in any way affected by policies of the agency where the nurse works.
• D. Professional growth and development of the PHN is the responsibility of the Department of Health (DOH).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct statement is that evaluation of the health status of individuals and families should be done in consultation with them. This approach ensures that the assessment is accurate and takes into account the perspectives and concerns of the individuals and families involved. Choice B is incorrect because determining the needs of the community should involve input from various stakeholders, not solely the PHN. Choice C is incorrect as the provision of PHN care can be influenced by the policies of the agency or organization where the nurse works. Choice D is also incorrect as while the DOH may play a role in setting standards, the professional growth and development of a PHN is typically a personal and professional responsibility.

5. When caring for premature newborns in an intensive care setting, a nurse carefully monitors oxygen concentration. What is the most common complication of this therapy?

• A. Intraventricular hemorrhage
• B. Retinopathy of prematurity
• C. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
• D. Necrotizing enterocolitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Retinopathy of prematurity is the most common complication in premature infants exposed to high concentrations of oxygen. This condition leads to abnormal blood vessel growth in the retina, which can potentially result in blindness if not managed promptly. Intraventricular hemorrhage, though a significant concern in premature infants, is not directly related to oxygen therapy. Bronchopulmonary dysplasia is primarily associated with mechanical ventilation and oxygen exposure over time, not specifically with oxygen concentration monitoring. Necrotizing enterocolitis is more linked to gastrointestinal issues and is not the most common complication of oxygen therapy in premature newborns.

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