Nursing Elites

1. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

• A. Screening for breast cancer in women who have no symptoms
• B. Using pain control medications for terminal cancer patients
• C. Educating teenagers about using condoms to prevent STDs
• D. None of the above

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

2. When a nurse teaches a community about the importance of hand hygiene, the nurse is engaging in:

• A. Primary prevention
• B. Secondary prevention
• C. Tertiary prevention
• D. Quaternary prevention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent the occurrence of a disease or injury before it happens. Teaching about hand hygiene to the community helps in preventing infections from occurring in the first place. Choice B, Secondary prevention, involves early detection and treatment to halt or slow the progress of a condition. This would involve screening or early intervention after exposure. Choice C, Tertiary prevention, focuses on managing the disease to prevent complications, recurrence, or deterioration. This would include rehabilitation and monitoring to prevent further complications. Choice D, Quaternary prevention, relates to actions taken to avoid unnecessary interventions or over-medicalization. This usually involves questioning the necessity of certain medical procedures or treatments to prevent harm to patients.

3. Certain health policies/strategies serve as guidelines in the delivery of services. Which of these is incorrect?

• A. A growth monitoring chart is a tool recommended for assessing and recording the child's health condition.
• B. Voluntary blood donation should be promoted through the organization of walking blood banks in rural areas.
• C. Public sectors should collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources.
• D. Traditional birth attendants should be trained and allowed to provide prenatal care to mothers.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Choice C is incorrect because public sectors are encouraged to collaborate with the private sector for effective utilization of resources, not work separately. Collaborating with the private sector can lead to improved resource allocation, better service delivery, and enhanced healthcare outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are correct as growth monitoring charts are indeed recommended for assessing child health, promoting voluntary blood donation through walking blood banks is beneficial, and training traditional birth attendants to provide prenatal care can improve maternal health.

4. What components should a nurse include when conducting a community health assessment?

• A. Personal health history of community members
• B. Number of hospitals in the community
• C. Demographic data, health status indicators, and community resources
• D. Results of laboratory tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When conducting a community health assessment, it is essential to gather demographic data (such as age, gender, ethnicity), health status indicators (like prevalence of diseases, mortality rates), and information on community resources (such as healthcare facilities, social services). These components help in understanding the health needs of the community and planning appropriate interventions. Choices A, B, and D are not typically part of a community health assessment as they focus on individual health data or specific medical information rather than the broader population health perspective required for community assessments.

5. A client with myasthenia gravis is receiving pyridostigmine (Mestinon). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Constipation
• B. Hypertension
• C. Muscle weakness
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Bradycardia. Pyridostigmine, a cholinesterase inhibitor used in myasthenia gravis, can lead to bradycardia as a side effect. Choice A, constipation, is not a common side effect of pyridostigmine. Choice B, hypertension, is unlikely as pyridostigmine is more likely to cause hypotension. Choice C, muscle weakness, is actually a symptom of myasthenia gravis itself and not a side effect of pyridostigmine.

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