HESI LPN
HESI Pediatrics Quizlet
1. A child is brought to the clinic after tripping over a rock. The child states, 'I twisted my ankle,' and is given a diagnosis of a sprain. What intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge instructions for this child?
- A. For the first 24 hours, apply ice for 20 minutes and then remove for 60 minutes.
- B. Bed rest with the leg elevated for 36 hours.
- C. May take an NSAID for pain as needed.
- D. Use a compression dressing for 72 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct intervention for a sprained ankle is to apply ice for 20 minutes every hour for the first 24 hours, then remove for 60 minutes to prevent tissue damage. This regimen helps reduce swelling and pain. Bed rest with the leg elevated for an extended period (36 hours) may lead to stiffness and decreased range of motion. While NSAIDs can be used for pain, they may not be necessary if pain is manageable with ice and rest. Using a compression dressing for 72 hours continuously may impede proper circulation and delay healing by restricting blood flow.
2. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?
- A. tachypnea
- B. bradycardia
- C. inability to sweat
- D. increased urinary output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.
3. An additional defect is associated with exstrophy of the bladder. For what anomaly should the nurse assess the infant?
- A. Imperforate anus
- B. Absence of one kidney
- C. Congenital heart disease
- D. Pubic bone malformation
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Pubic bone malformation. Exstrophy of the bladder is commonly associated with pubic bone malformation as the condition involves a defect in the pelvic region. Imperforate anus, absence of one kidney, and congenital heart disease are not typically associated with exstrophy of the bladder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the nurse should primarily assess the infant for pubic bone malformation in this case.
4. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. After determining that delivery is not imminent, you begin transport. While en route, the mother tells you that she feels the urge to push. You assess her and see the top of the baby's head bulging from the vagina. What is your most appropriate first action?
- A. Allow the head to deliver and check for the location of the cord.
- B. Advise your partner to stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery.
- C. Tell the mother to take short, quick breaths until you arrive at the hospital.
- D. Prepare the mother for an emergency delivery and open the obstetrics kit.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the most appropriate first action is to advise your partner to stop the ambulance and assist with the delivery. When the baby's head is visible and delivery is imminent, it is crucial to provide immediate assistance to ensure the safety of both the mother and the baby. Allowing the head to deliver and checking for the location of the cord (Choice A) may delay necessary actions during an imminent delivery. Instructing the mother to take short, quick breaths (Choice C) is not suitable as active delivery is already in progress. Preparing the mother for an emergency delivery and opening the obstetrics kit (Choice D) is not the most immediate action needed when the baby's head is already visible and delivery is imminent.
5. A 6-year-old child comes to the school nurse reporting a sore throat, and the nurse verifies that the child has a fever and a red, inflamed throat. When a parent of the child arrives at school to take the child home, the nurse urges the parent to seek treatment. The nurse is aware that the causative agent may be beta-hemolytic streptococcus, and the illness may progress to inflamed joints and an infection in the heart. What illness is of most concern to the nurse?
- A. Tetanus
- B. Influenza
- C. Scarlet fever
- D. Rheumatic fever
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rheumatic fever. Rheumatic fever can develop as a complication of untreated strep throat caused by beta-hemolytic streptococcus. It is characterized by inflamed joints and can lead to serious complications such as heart infections. Tetanus (choice A) is caused by a bacterial toxin affecting the nervous system, Influenza (choice B) is a viral respiratory illness, and Scarlet fever (choice C) is also caused by streptococcus but is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash and strawberry tongue. However, in the scenario described, the nurse is most concerned about the child developing rheumatic fever due to the potential serious consequences associated with it.
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