Nursing Elites

1. When assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, what clinical manifestation is the nurse likely to observe?

• A. Photophobia
• B. High fever
• C. Rash
• D. Nasal congestion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: High fever. In bacterial meningitis, a high fever is a common clinical manifestation due to the body's inflammatory response to the infection. While photophobia (choice A) is also a common symptom in meningitis, it is not as specific as a high fever. Rash (choice C) is more commonly associated with viral infections or other conditions, rather than bacterial meningitis. Nasal congestion (choice D) is not a typical clinical manifestation of bacterial meningitis and is more commonly seen in respiratory infections. Therefore, when assessing a child with suspected bacterial meningitis, the nurse is most likely to observe a high fever as a key clinical manifestation.

2. The nurse is caring for an infant with suspected pyloric stenosis. Which clinical manifestation would indicate pyloric stenosis?

• A. abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation
• B. rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds
• C. visible peristalsis and weight loss
• D. distention of the lower abdomen and constipation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Visible peristalsis and weight loss are classic clinical manifestations of pyloric stenosis. The obstruction at the pyloric sphincter causes visible peristalsis as the stomach tries to push food through the narrowed opening, leading to the appearance of waves across the abdomen. Weight loss occurs due to poor feeding and frequent vomiting associated with pyloric stenosis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Abdominal rigidity and pain on palpation, rounded abdomen and hypoactive bowel sounds, as well as distention of the lower abdomen and constipation are not typically seen in pyloric stenosis.

3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products indicate disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), a condition characterized by the widespread formation of blood clots throughout the body. In DIC, clotting factors are consumed, leading to increased fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster blood clotting, which is not consistent with the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) is also not a characteristic finding in DIC, as fibrinogen levels may be decreased due to consumption in the formation of clots. Increased platelets (Choice D) are not typically observed in DIC; instead, thrombocytopenia (decreased platelet count) is more common due to their consumption in clot formation.

4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory report of a child with tetralogy of Fallot that indicates an elevated RBC count. What does the professional identify as the cause of the polycythemia?

• A. Low tissue oxygen needs
• B. Tissue oxygen needs
• C. Diminished iron level
• D. Hypertrophic cardiac muscle

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Tissue oxygen needs. Polycythemia occurs as the body's response to chronic hypoxia by increasing RBC production to enhance oxygen delivery. In tetralogy of Fallot, a congenital heart defect, the heart's structure causes reduced oxygen levels in the blood. This chronic hypoxia stimulates the bone marrow to produce more red blood cells, leading to an elevated RBC count. Choice A is incorrect as low blood pressure is not directly related to polycythemia in this context. Choice C, diminished iron level, is not the cause of polycythemia in tetralogy of Fallot. Choice D, hypertrophic cardiac muscle, is not the primary cause of the elevated RBC count in this case.

5. A newborn is diagnosed with metatarsus adductus. The parents ask the nurse how this occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

• A. This condition is due to a genetic defect in the bones.
• B. It's most likely from how the baby was positioned in utero.
• C. They really don't know what causes this condition.
• D. There is probably an underlying deformity of the baby's hip.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metatarsus adductus is a condition where the front part of the foot is turned inward. It is often caused by the baby's position in the womb, leading to pressure on the foot during fetal development. Choice A is incorrect as metatarsus adductus is not primarily caused by a genetic defect in the bones. Choice C is incorrect as the cause of metatarsus adductus is known to be related to intrauterine positioning. Choice D is incorrect as metatarsus adductus specifically pertains to the foot and not the hip.

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