HESI LPN
HESI Focus on Maternity Exam
1. A charge nurse is teaching a group of staff nurses about fetal monitoring during labor. Which of the following findings should the charge nurse instruct the staff members to report to the provider?
- A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds
- B. Contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart
- C. Absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate
- D. Fetal heart rate is 140/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Contraction durations of 95 to 100 seconds are prolonged, indicating uterine hyperstimulation, which can lead to fetal distress and requires immediate intervention. Reporting this finding to the provider is crucial to ensure timely management and prevent adverse outcomes. Choice B, contraction frequency of 2 to 3 minutes apart, is within the normal range and does not raise immediate concerns. Choice C, absent early deceleration of fetal heart rate, is a reassuring finding suggesting fetal well-being. Choice D, a fetal heart rate of 140/min, is also normal for a fetus and does not typically require immediate reporting unless it deviates significantly from the baseline or is accompanied by other concerning signs.
2. A woman gave birth to a 7-pound, 6-ounce infant girl 1 hour ago. The birth was vaginal and the estimated blood loss (EBL) was 1500 ml. When evaluating the woman’s vital signs, which finding would be of greatest concern to the nurse?
- A. Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 beats per minute (bpm), respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg.
- B. Temperature 37.4°C, heart rate 88 bpm, respirations 36 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 126/68 mm Hg.
- C. Temperature 38°C, heart rate 80 bpm, respirations 16 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 110/80 mm Hg.
- D. Temperature 36.8°C, heart rate 60 bpm, respirations 18 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 140/90 mm Hg.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An estimated blood loss (EBL) of 1500 ml following a vaginal birth is significant and can lead to hypovolemia. The vital signs provided in option A (Temperature 37.9°C, heart rate 120 bpm, respirations 20 breaths per minute, and blood pressure 90/50 mm Hg) indicate tachycardia and hypotension, which are concerning signs of hypovolemia due to excessive blood loss. Tachycardia is the body's compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output in response to decreased blood volume, and hypotension indicates inadequate perfusion. Options B, C, and D do not exhibit the same level of concern for hypovolemia. Option B shows tachypnea, which can be a result of pain or anxiety postpartum. Option C and D have vital signs within normal limits, which are not indicative of the body's response to significant blood loss.
3. Before meiosis, a sperm cell:
- A. contains 46 chromosomes.
- B. contains two X chromosomes.
- C. is significantly larger than an egg cell.
- D. contains both an X and a Y chromosome.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Before meiosis, a sperm cell contains 46 chromosomes. This is because sperm cells, like other somatic cells, have a diploid number of chromosomes. During meiosis, the number of chromosomes is halved to 23 to combine with an egg cell during fertilization. Choice B is incorrect because a sperm cell carries either an X or a Y chromosome, not both (Choice D). Choice C is incorrect as sperm cells are generally smaller than egg cells, which is an adaptation that aids in motility and penetration of the egg during fertilization.
4. A nurse on the labor and delivery unit is assessing four clients. Which of the following clients is a candidate for an induction of labor with misoprostol?
- A. A client who has active genital herpes
- B. A client who has gestational diabetes mellitus
- C. A client who has a previous uterine incision
- D. A client who has placenta previa
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Misoprostol can be used for induction in clients with gestational diabetes mellitus. Choice A, a client with active genital herpes, is not a candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of viral shedding and transmission. Choice C, a client with a previous uterine incision, may be at risk for uterine rupture with misoprostol use. Choice D, a client with placenta previa, is not an appropriate candidate for misoprostol induction due to the risk of increased bleeding associated with the condition.
5. A newborn is scheduled to start phototherapy using a lamp. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan?
- A. Apply a thin layer of lotion to the newborn's skin every 8 hours.
- B. Give the newborn 1 oz of glucose water every 4 hours.
- C. Ensure the newborn's eyes are closed beneath the shield.
- D. Dress the newborn in a thin layer of clothing during therapy.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During phototherapy using a lamp, it is crucial to protect the newborn's eyes from the light to prevent damage. Closing the newborn's eyes beneath the shield is essential for this purpose. Applying lotion to the skin (Choice A) is not recommended as it can intensify the effects of the phototherapy. Giving glucose water (Choice B) is unrelated to the phototherapy process and is not indicated. Dressing the newborn in clothing (Choice D) may hinder the effectiveness of the phototherapy by blocking the light exposure to the skin.
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