Nursing Elites

1. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?

• A. Amniocentesis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.

2. A client at 30 weeks gestation reports that she has not felt the baby move in the last 24 hours. Concerned, she arrives in a panic at the obstetric clinic where she is immediately sent to the hospital. Which assessment warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Fetal Heart rate 60 beats per minute
• B. Ruptured amniotic membrane
• C. Onset of uterine contractions
• D. Leaking amniotic fluid

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 60 beats per minute is significantly below the normal range (110-160 bpm) and indicates fetal distress, requiring immediate intervention. This low heart rate can be a sign of fetal compromise or distress, necessitating urgent evaluation and intervention to ensure the well-being of the fetus. Choices B, C, and D do not indicate immediate fetal distress requiring urgent intervention. Ruptured amniotic membrane, onset of uterine contractions, and leaking amniotic fluid are important assessments but do not present an immediate threat to the fetus's life like a severely low fetal heart rate.

3. A nurse on the postpartum unit is caring for four clients. For which of the following clients should the nurse notify the provider?

• A. A client with a urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours
• B. A client reporting abdominal cramping during breastfeeding
• C. A client receiving magnesium sulfate with absent deep tendon reflexes
• D. A client reporting lochia rubra requiring changing perineal pads every 3 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because in a client receiving magnesium sulfate, absent deep tendon reflexes can indicate magnesium toxicity, which requires immediate intervention to prevent serious complications. Choices A, B, and D are common postpartum occurrences that do not typically warrant immediate provider notification. A urinary output of 300 ml in 8 hours, abdominal cramping during breastfeeding, and frequent changing of perineal pads due to lochia rubra are within the expected range of postpartum recovery and do not indicate an urgent need for provider notification.

4. A perinatal nurse is caring for a woman in the immediate postpartum period. Assessment reveals that the client is experiencing profuse bleeding. What is the most likely cause of this bleeding?

• A. Uterine atony.
• B. Uterine inversion.
• C. Vaginal hematoma.
• D. Vaginal laceration.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Uterine atony is significant hypotonia of the uterus and is the leading cause of postpartum hemorrhage. It results in the inability of the uterus to contract effectively after delivery, leading to excessive bleeding. Uterine inversion is a rare but serious complication that involves the turning inside out of the uterus, leading to hemorrhage, but it is not the most likely cause of profuse bleeding in this scenario. Vaginal hematoma may cause bleeding but is typically associated with pain as a primary symptom rather than profuse bleeding. Vaginal lacerations can cause bleeding, but in the presence of a firm, contracted uterine fundus, uterine atony is a more likely cause of ongoing profuse bleeding in the postpartum period.

5. When assessing a woman in the first stage of labor, which clinical finding will alert the nurse that uterine contractions are effective?

• A. Dilation of the cervix.
• B. Descent of the fetus to –2 station.
• C. Rupture of the amniotic membranes.
• D. Increase in bloody show.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During the first stage of labor, effective uterine contractions lead to cervical dilation. Dilation of the cervix is a key indicator that uterine contractions are progressing labor. Descent of the fetus to -2 station (Choice B) is related to the fetal position in the pelvis and not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness. Rupture of the amniotic membranes (Choice C) signifies the rupture of the fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus and does not directly reflect uterine contraction effectiveness. An increase in bloody show (Choice D) can be a sign of impending labor, but it is not a direct indicator of uterine contraction effectiveness.

Similar Questions