Nursing Elites

1. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?

• A. Amniocentesis
• B. Mitosis
• C. Meiosis
• D. Mutation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.

2. A client with preeclampsia is receiving magnesium sulfate by continuous IV infusion. Which finding should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure 148/94 mm Hg
• B. Respiratory rate 14/min
• C. Urinary output 20 mL/hr
• D. 2+ deep tendon reflexes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia receiving magnesium sulfate, a urinary output of 20 mL/hr is a concerning finding as it may indicate renal impairment or magnesium toxicity. Adequate urinary output is crucial for eliminating excess magnesium and preventing toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation. A blood pressure of 148/94 mm Hg is elevated but expected in a client with preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 14/min is within the normal range. 2+ deep tendon reflexes are a common finding in clients receiving magnesium sulfate and are not a cause for concern unless they progress to hyperreflexia or clonus.

3. A woman with gestational diabetes has had little or no experience reading and interpreting glucose levels. The client shows the nurse her readings for the past few days. Which reading signals the nurse that the client may require an adjustment of insulin or carbohydrates?

• A. 75 mg/dl before lunch. This is low; better eat now.
• B. 115 mg/dl 1 hour after lunch. This is a little high; maybe eat a little less next time.
• C. 115 mg/dl 2 hours after lunch. This is too high; it is time for insulin.
• D. 50 mg/dl just after waking up from a nap. This is too low; maybe eat a snack before going to sleep.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 50 mg/dl after waking from a nap is too low. During hours of sleep, glucose levels should not be less than 60 mg/dl. Snacks before sleeping can be helpful. The premeal acceptable range is 60 to 99 mg/dl. The readings 1 hour after a meal should be less than 129 mg/dl. Two hours after eating, the readings should be less than 120 mg/dl.

4. A client who is 24 weeks gestation arrives at the clinic reporting swollen hands. On examination, the nurse notes the client has had a rapid weight gain over six weeks. Which action should the nurse implement next?

• A. Review the client's previous blood pressures in the chart.
• B. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
• C. Observe and time the client's contractions.
• D. Examine the client for pedal edema.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen hands and rapid weight gain could be signs of preeclampsia, so the next step is to check the client's blood pressure. Elevated blood pressure is a key indicator in assessing for preeclampsia in pregnancy. Reviewing the client's previous blood pressures may provide additional context but obtaining the current blood pressure is crucial for immediate assessment. Observing and timing contractions are not relevant in this scenario as the client is not presenting with signs of active labor. Examining for pedal edema is important in assessing for fluid retention, but obtaining the blood pressure takes precedence in this case due to the potential seriousness of preeclampsia.

5. A client has bacterial vaginosis. Which of the following medications should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Metronidazole
• B. Fluconazole
• C. Acyclovir
• D. Clindamycin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Metronidazole is the correct choice for treating bacterial vaginosis as it is the first-line medication recommended for this condition. Metronidazole works by disrupting the DNA structure of bacteria, making it an effective treatment. Choice B, Fluconazole, is an antifungal medication primarily used for treating fungal infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice C, Acyclovir, is an antiviral medication used to treat viral infections, not bacterial vaginosis. Choice D, Clindamycin, is also used to treat bacterial infections but is not the first-line treatment for bacterial vaginosis, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

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