HESI LPN
Maternity HESI Practice Questions
1. What is the process in which the double helix of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) duplicates?
- A. Amniocentesis
- B. Mitosis
- C. Meiosis
- D. Mutation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Mitosis is the correct answer because it is the process of cell division in which a cell duplicates its DNA and divides into two identical daughter cells. During mitosis, the DNA is replicated, and each daughter cell receives an identical copy of the genetic material. Amniocentesis is a medical procedure to collect amniotic fluid for prenatal genetic testing and is not related to DNA duplication. Meiosis is a type of cell division that produces gametes with half the genetic material of the parent cell, leading to genetic diversity. Mutation is a permanent alteration in the DNA sequence that can lead to genetic variations but is not the process of DNA duplication.
2. The client who is 40 weeks gestation seems upset and tells the nurse that the physician told her she needs to have a nonstress test. The client asks why she needs the test. The nurse’s best response would be:
- A. This is a test to see if your stress level is affecting your baby’s growth and well-being.
- B. This is a test to see if your baby will be able to withstand the stress of labor.
- C. This is a test to assess your baby’s well-being now that you are due to deliver soon.
- D. This is a test to let us know if your baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct response is C because the nonstress test is specifically used to assess the baby's well-being close to the due date. It helps determine if the baby is receiving enough oxygen and nutrients in the womb. Choice A is incorrect as the test does not assess the mother's stress level but focuses on fetal well-being. Choice B is incorrect as the test does not predict the baby's ability to withstand labor. Choice D is incorrect because the test does not solely indicate if the baby needs to be delivered to avoid a bad outcome; rather, it assesses the current well-being of the baby.
3. A client is preparing to administer methylergonovine 0.2 mg orally to a client who is 2 hr postpartum and has a boggy uterus. For which of the following assessment findings should the nurse withhold the medication?
- A. Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg
- B. Urine output 100 mL in 1 hr
- C. Pulse 58/min
- D. Respiratory rate 14/min
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Methylergonovine can increase blood pressure, so it should be withheld if the client has hypertension. A blood pressure reading of 142/92 mm Hg indicates hypertension and is a contraindication for administering methylergonovine. Choices B, C, and D are within normal limits and not contraindications for administering this medication. Urine output, pulse rate, and respiratory rate are not factors that determine the appropriateness of administering methylergonovine in this situation.
4. Daisy was always unusually short for her age. She was unable to conceive a child after marriage, and upon visiting a doctor, she was prescribed estrogen replacement therapy. Daisy is most likely suffering from:
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU).
- B. Cystic fibrosis.
- C. Turner syndrome.
- D. Huntington’s disease (HD).
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Daisy's symptoms of short stature and infertility, along with the prescription of estrogen replacement therapy, are indicative of Turner syndrome. Turner syndrome is a genetic condition in which a female is partially or completely missing one X chromosome. This results in short stature, infertility, and other physical characteristics. Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder caused by a mutation in the gene responsible for the breakdown of the amino acid phenylalanine. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder affecting the respiratory and digestive systems. Huntington's disease (HD) is a neurodegenerative disorder that affects muscle coordination and leads to cognitive decline.
5. Which FHR finding is the most concerning to the nurse providing care to a laboring client?
- A. Accelerations with fetal movement.
- B. Early decelerations.
- C. Average FHR of 126 beats per minute.
- D. Late decelerations.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Late decelerations are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, resulting in fetal hypoxemia. They are considered ominous if persistent, indicating compromised oxygen supply to the fetus. Accelerations with fetal movement (Choice A) are reassuring signs of fetal well-being. Early decelerations (Choice B) are typically benign, associated with head compression during contractions. An average FHR of 126 beats per minute (Choice C) falls within the normal range for fetal heart rate and is not concerning. Therefore, the most concerning FHR finding in a laboring client is late decelerations (Choice D).
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