a 9 year old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg iv every 6 hours for a methicillin resistant beta lactam resistant staphylococci aureus mrsa infection the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain

1. A 9-year-old is receiving vancomycin 400 mg IV every 6 hours for a methicillin-resistant (Beta-lactam-resistant) Staphylococci aureus (MRSA) infection. The medication is diluted in a 100 mL bag of saline with instructions to infuse over one and a half hours. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate for vancomycin, you need to divide the total volume by the total time of infusion. In this case, the total volume is 100 mL, and the total time is 1.5 hours. Therefore, 100 mL รท 1.5 hours = 67 mL/hour. This means the nurse should program the infusion pump to deliver vancomycin at a rate of 67 mL/hour. Choice A (50) is incorrect as it does not reflect the correct calculation. Choice C (57) is incorrect as it is not the accurate calculation based on the provided information. Choice D (70) is incorrect as it does not correspond to the correct infusion rate calculation.

2. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes fresh bleeding on the client's cast. What intervention should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention is to outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding. This approach helps in assessing the extent and progression of the bleeding. Option A is incorrect because assessing hemoglobin levels would not provide immediate information on the ongoing bleeding. Option B is premature without first monitoring the bleeding site. Option D is incorrect because although some postoperative bleeding can be expected, fresh bleeding on the cast warrants immediate monitoring and evaluation.

3. A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which electrolyte imbalance should the nurse monitor for?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for low potassium levels. Choice A, Hyperkalemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not typically cause high potassium levels. Choice B, Hyponatremia, is incorrect as furosemide primarily affects potassium levels, not sodium. Choice C, Hypocalcemia, is incorrect as furosemide does not directly impact calcium levels.

4. How should the nurse assess for cyanosis in a client with dark skin who is in respiratory distress?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Observing the lips and mucous membranes provides a reliable indicator of cyanosis in clients with dark skin tones. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis can be assessed in clients with dark skin by observing other body areas. Choice B is incorrect as blanching the soles of the feet is not a relevant method for assessing cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as cyanosis is not typically seen in the sclera in clients with dark skin.

5. When counting a client's radial pulse, the nurse notes the pulse is weak and irregular. To record the most accurate heart rate, what should the nurse do?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to count the apical pulse rate for sixty seconds. The apical pulse is more accurate, especially when peripheral pulses are weak or irregular. Counting the apical pulse for a full minute provides a more precise heart rate measurement. Option A is incorrect because waiting for thirty minutes is unnecessary and could delay potential interventions. Option B is incorrect because doubling the radial pulse rate may not provide an accurate representation of the heart rate. Option D is incorrect because comparing radial pulses bilaterally does not give the most accurate heart rate measurement; the apical pulse is preferred in this situation.

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