Nursing Elites

1. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administering antibiotics
• B. Isolating the child
• C. Monitoring vital signs
• D. Administering fluids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a 5-year-old child admitted to the hospital with bacterial meningitis is to isolate the child. Isolating the child is crucial to prevent the spread of infection to others, as bacterial meningitis is highly contagious. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in the treatment of bacterial meningitis, but isolating the child takes precedence to protect others. Monitoring vital signs (Choice C) and administering fluids (Choice D) are essential aspects of care for a child with meningitis but are not the priority intervention to prevent the spread of the infection.

2. What should be the priority action when caring for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis?

• A. Initiate measures to reduce fever.
• B. Ensure delivery of humidified oxygen.
• C. Provide support to reduce apprehension.
• D. Continually assess the respiratory status.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis, the priority action should be to continually assess the respiratory status. This is crucial to detect early signs of respiratory distress, such as worsening stridor or increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention can prevent further deterioration of the child's condition. Initiating measures to reduce fever (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Ensuring delivery of humidified oxygen (Choice B) is important for maintaining oxygenation but should follow the assessment of respiratory status. Providing support to reduce apprehension (Choice C) is also important for the child's comfort but is not the priority over assessing and managing respiratory distress.

3. A child has undergone surgery using steel bar placement to correct pectus excavatum. What position would the nurse instruct the parents to avoid?

• A. Semi-Fowler
• B. Supine
• C. High Fowler
• D. Side-lying

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Side-lying. After surgery using steel bar placement to correct pectus excavatum, the nurse should instruct the parents to avoid placing the child in a side-lying position. This position should be avoided to prevent displacement of the steel bar. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Semi-Fowler, Supine, and High Fowler positions are generally safe and commonly used in postoperative care, but in this specific case, side-lying should be avoided to ensure the effectiveness of the surgical correction.

4. A parent of an 11-month-old infant who has a cleft palate asks the nurse why it was recommended that closure of the palate should be done before the age of 2. How should the nurse respond?

• A. “After age 2, surgery is frightening and should be avoided if possible.”
• B. “Eruption of the 2-year molars often complicates the surgical procedure.”
• C. “As your child gets older, the palate gets wider and more difficult to repair.”
• D. “Surgery should be performed before your child starts to use faulty speech patterns.”

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Closure of the cleft palate is recommended before the age of 2 to prevent the development of faulty speech patterns. Performing surgery at a younger age helps avoid speech difficulties that may arise if the repair is delayed. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on fear, not the developmental aspect. Choice B is incorrect as the eruption of molars is not the primary reason for early surgery. Choice C is incorrect because the difficulty of repair is not solely related to the width of the palate but also to speech development.

5. The nurse is caring for a 15-year-old boy who has sustained burn injuries. The nurse observes the burn developing a purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. The nurse suspects which infection?

• A. Burn wound cellulitis.
• B. Invasive burn cellulitis.
• C. Burn impetigo.
• D. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Invasive burn cellulitis is characterized by the burn developing a dark brown, black, or purplish color with discharge and a foul odor. This description aligns with the symptoms observed in the 15-year-old boy. Burn wound cellulitis (Choice A) typically presents with erythema, edema, warmth, and tenderness at the burn site, without the characteristic changes seen in this case. Burn impetigo (Choice C) is a superficial infection characterized by honey-colored crusts, not consistent with the purplish color and foul odor described. Staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (Choice D) is a condition caused by exotoxins produced by Staphylococcus aureus, leading to widespread desquamation of the skin, but it does not typically present with the specific findings mentioned in the scenario.

Similar Questions