a 25 year old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum which nursing diagnosis should
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. A 25-year-old primigravida at 16 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum. Which nursing diagnosis should have the highest priority?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a case of hyperemesis gravidarum, the priority nursing diagnosis should be addressing the Fluid volume deficit. This condition can lead to serious complications such as electrolyte imbalances and dehydration, which can endanger both the mother and the fetus if not managed promptly. Altered nutrition: less than body requirements is important but addressing the fluid volume deficit takes precedence as it poses an immediate threat. Anxiety related to new situational crisis and Activity intolerance related to fatigue are valid concerns, but they are secondary to the critical issue of fluid volume deficit in this scenario.

2. A client has a fecal impaction. Before digital removal of the mass, which of the following types of enemas should be administered to soften the feces?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An oil retention enema is the most appropriate choice to soften and lubricate the feces before digital removal. Oil retention enemas help in making the stool easier to remove digitally due to their lubricating properties. Soapsuds, saline, and hypertonic enemas are not specifically designed to soften feces and are used for different purposes. Soapsuds enemas are used for cleansing, saline enemas for bowel evacuation, and hypertonic enemas for bowel distension in preparation for diagnostic procedures.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. Which symptom should the nurse expect to find?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Pheochromocytoma is characterized by the overproduction of catecholamines, leading to symptoms such as hypertension. Bradycardia (Choice B) is not typical in pheochromocytoma as increased catecholamines usually lead to tachycardia. Hypoglycemia (Choice C) and weight gain (Choice D) are not commonly associated symptoms of pheochromocytoma.

4. A client with chronic kidney disease is experiencing hyperkalemia. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed to lower the client's potassium level?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sodium polystyrene sulfonate (Kayexalate). Kayexalate is commonly used to lower potassium levels in clients with hyperkalemia by exchanging sodium ions for potassium ions in the large intestine, leading to the elimination of excess potassium from the body. Choice A, Furosemide (Lasix), is a loop diuretic that helps with fluid retention but does not directly lower potassium levels. Choice C, Calcium gluconate, is used to treat calcium deficiencies and does not impact potassium levels. Choice D, Albuterol (Proventil), is a bronchodilator used to treat respiratory conditions and does not affect potassium levels. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should anticipate the prescription of Kayexalate to address the client's hyperkalemia.

5. The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.

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