Nursing Elites

1. To be an effective educator, you should:

• A. listen to people's problems and decide on the approach to meet their needs
• B. select the best strategy for health action for people to implement
• C. direct people's efforts to implement community-based projects
• D. simply tell your clients what to do for their problems/needs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to select the best strategy for health action for people to implement because it empowers the community to take ownership of their health. Listening to people's problems (Choice A) is important, but the effectiveness lies in empowering them to implement solutions. Directing people's efforts (Choice C) can be directive and may not foster community ownership. Just telling clients what to do (Choice D) does not promote active participation and empowerment.

2. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?

• A. greater access to any healthcare provider
• B. allowance for early discharge
• C. concern for the quality of care
• D. approval by the network healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.

3. A female client makes routine visits to a neighborhood community health center. The nurse notes that this client often presents with facial bruising, particularly around the eyes. The nurse discusses prevention of domestic violence with the client even though the client does not admit to being battered. What level of prevention has the nurse applied in this situation?

• A. primary prevention
• B. secondary prevention
• C. tertiary prevention
• D. health promotion

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: secondary prevention. Secondary prevention involves identifying and addressing issues early to prevent further harm. In this scenario, the nurse is intervening by discussing domestic violence prevention with the client who is showing signs of facial bruising, aiming to prevent further harm even though the client has not disclosed being battered. Choice A (primary prevention) focuses on preventing the onset of a problem before it occurs, like educating about healthy relationships before violence happens. Choice C (tertiary prevention) involves managing and treating the effects of a problem that has already occurred, such as providing counseling to a domestic violence survivor. Choice D (health promotion) aims to enhance well-being and prevent health problems through educational and environmental interventions, which may include aspects of preventing domestic violence, but in this case, the nurse's direct intervention is more about early identification and prevention of harm, aligning it with secondary prevention.

4. A client with chronic congestive heart failure should be instructed to contact the home health nurse if which finding occurs?

• A. Weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period
• B. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day
• C. A significant decrease in appetite
• D. Appearance of non-pitting ankle edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A rapid weight gain of 2 pounds or more in a 48-hour period may indicate fluid retention and worsening heart failure, requiring prompt medical evaluation and intervention. This finding is crucial in managing chronic congestive heart failure as it signifies a potential exacerbation of the condition. Choices B, C, and D are less concerning in this context. Urinating 4 to 5 times a day is within the normal range for most individuals and may not be directly related to heart failure. A significant decrease in appetite may be due to various factors and might not be an immediate cause for concern in heart failure patients. The appearance of non-pitting ankle edema, although related to heart failure, is a more chronic and less urgent symptom when compared to a rapid weight gain, which requires immediate attention.

5. The healthcare provider is evaluating the health status of a 16-year-old client with a history of Type 1 diabetes. Which laboratory test would provide the most accurate information about long-term blood glucose control?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Glycosylated hemoglobin
• C. Urine ketones
• D. Serum insulin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c). Glycosylated hemoglobin provides valuable information about blood glucose control over the past 2-3 months. This test measures the average blood sugar levels during this period, offering a more comprehensive view of long-term glycemic control. Choice A, blood glucose level, reflects the blood sugar concentration at the time of testing and may fluctuate throughout the day. Choice C, urine ketones, indicates the presence of ketones and is more relevant for assessing acute complications like diabetic ketoacidosis. Choice D, serum insulin level, evaluates insulin production and is not a direct indicator of long-term blood glucose control in diabetes management.

Similar Questions