Nursing Elites

1. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.

2. A client with a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management asks how it works. What information should the nurse reinforce?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain
• B. An infusion of medication in the spinal canal will block pain perception
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. TENS works by delivering a mild electrical stimulus that can block pain signals from reaching the brain, effectively reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because TENS does not distract from pain but rather interferes with pain signals. Choice B is incorrect as TENS does not involve infusing medication into the spinal canal. Choice C is also incorrect because TENS does not target the cerebral cortex to dull pain perception but rather works at the level of nerve conduction.

3. A client has a prescription for a transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulator (TENS) unit for pain management during the postoperative period following a lumbar laminectomy. Which information should the PN reinforce about the action of the adjuvant pain modality?

• A. The discharge of electricity will distract the client's focus from the pain.
• B. An infusion of medication into the spinal canal will block pain perception.
• C. Pain perception in the cerebral cortex is dulled by the unit's discharge of an electrical stimulus.
• D. A mild electrical stimulus on the skin surface closes the gates of nerve conduction for severe pain.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The TENS unit works by providing a mild electrical stimulus to the skin, which helps to 'close the gate' on pain signals, reducing the perception of pain. Choice A is incorrect because distraction is not the primary mechanism of action for TENS. Choice B is incorrect as it describes a different method of pain management involving medication infusion into the spinal canal. Choice C is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the location of pain perception modulation by the TENS unit.

4. The PN notes that an older female client has developed a nonproductive cough and seems more confused than the previous day. Vital signs are temperature 99.8°F, pulse 94, respirations 22, and B/P 108/54. Which intervention is most important for the PN to implement?

• A. Report the findings to the charge nurse
• B. Monitor the client's temperature hourly
• C. Offer the client fluids frequently
• D. Provide care to moisten oral mucosa

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The change in the client’s condition, especially confusion and a new cough, may indicate the onset of an infection such as pneumonia, which requires immediate attention. Reporting to the charge nurse ensures prompt evaluation and intervention. Monitoring the client's temperature hourly (Choice B) could be important but not the most critical at this point. Offering the client fluids frequently (Choice C) and providing care to moisten oral mucosa (Choice D) are not the priority interventions when facing potential signs of infection and confusion in the client.

5. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

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