HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2023
1. During an inspection of a client's fingernails, the nurse notices a suspected abnormality in the shape and character of the nails. Which finding should the nurse document?
- A. Clubbed nails
- B. Splinter hemorrhages
- C. Longitudinal ridges
- D. Koilonychia or spoon nails
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clubbed nails are a significant finding in clients with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. This abnormality is characterized by an increased curvature of the nails and softening of the nail bed. It can indicate underlying health conditions such as respiratory or cardiovascular issues. Splinter hemorrhages (B) are small areas of bleeding under the nails, typically associated with infective endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (C) are often a normal age-related change in the nails. Koilonychia or spoon nails (D) present as a concave shape of the nails and are commonly seen in clients with iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. Therefore, documenting clubbed nails is the most relevant abnormality to report and investigate further.
2. Before administering a scheduled dose of insulin to a 10-year-old child who is learning diabetic self-care, which information is most important for the PN to ask the child?
- A. How much exercise did the child have today?
- B. Did the child perform a finger stick?
- C. When did the child last urinate?
- D. Has the child eaten recently?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Did the child perform a finger stick?' Before administering insulin, it is crucial to check the child's blood glucose level to prevent hypoglycemia. Performing a finger stick blood glucose test provides essential information on the current blood sugar level. Choice A ('How much exercise did the child have today?') is not as critical as monitoring blood glucose levels directly. Choice C ('When did the child last urinate?') is not directly related to the immediate need for insulin administration. Choice D ('Has the child eaten recently?') is important but not as crucial as knowing the current blood glucose level.
3. The PN is caring for an older client who was informed about the diagnosis of terminal cancer two days ago. Which intervention would be most helpful for the client's spouse at this time?
- A. Consultation with the case manager and hospital chaplain
- B. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain
- C. Participating in the client's care within his/her capabilities and desires
- D. Information about palliative and hospice care services
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Providing information about palliative and hospice care services can help the spouse understand the options for managing the client's symptoms and improving the quality of life. This also provides support and guidance during a difficult time. Consulting with the case manager and hospital chaplain may be beneficial for emotional support but may not address the practical aspects of care. Visiting after procedures are done to avoid seeing the client in pain may not foster open communication and support. While participating in the client's care is important, providing information about palliative and hospice care services is the most helpful intervention in this scenario.
4. The nurse assigns a UAP to assist with the personal care of a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Which instruction should the nurse provide the UAP?
- A. Assist the client with a hot bath
- B. Encourage self-care but allow rest periods
- C. Face the client directly when speaking
- D. Keep the head of the bed elevated at all times
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction for the UAP to provide when assisting a client experiencing an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis is to encourage self-care but allow rest periods. Clients with multiple sclerosis often experience fatigue, so promoting self-care activities while ensuring they have adequate rest periods is crucial for symptom management and maintaining independence. Choice A is incorrect as hot baths can potentially exacerbate symptoms in clients with multiple sclerosis. Choice C is unrelated to the client's care needs during an acute exacerbation of multiple sclerosis. Choice D is not a priority instruction in this situation and may not directly impact the client's immediate care needs.
5. Which condition is commonly screened for in newborns using the Guthrie test?
- A. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
- B. Cystic fibrosis
- C. Down syndrome
- D. Sickle cell anemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The Guthrie test is specifically designed to screen newborns for phenylketonuria (PKU), a metabolic disorder that can lead to intellectual disability if left untreated. Phenylketonuria is caused by the deficiency of an enzyme required to metabolize the amino acid phenylalanine. Screening for PKU in newborns is crucial as early diagnosis and intervention can prevent the severe consequences associated with the condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as the Guthrie test is not used to screen for cystic fibrosis, Down syndrome, or sickle cell anemia.
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