Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following techniques represents the MOST appropriate method of opening the airway of an infant with no suspected neck injury?

• A. Perform the technique as you would for an older child or adult.
• B. Lift up the chin and hyperextend the neck.
• C. Gently lift the chin while maintaining slight flexion of the neck.
• D. Tilt the head back without hyperextending the neck.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Tilting the head back without hyperextending the neck is the safest way to open an infant's airway. Hyperextending the neck can potentially cause harm to the infant, making option D the most appropriate method for opening an infant's airway without suspected neck injury.

2. In contrast to the contractions associated with true labor, Braxton-Hicks contractions:

• A. generally follow rupture of the amniotic sac and occur with regularity.
• B. may be intensified by activity and are accompanied by a pink discharge.
• C. do not increase in intensity and are alleviated by a change in position.
• D. consistently become stronger and are not alleviated by changing position.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Braxton-Hicks contractions are irregular and usually do not increase in intensity. Unlike true labor contractions, they tend to alleviate with a change in position, making option C the correct choice. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because Braxton-Hicks contractions do not follow rupture of the amniotic sac, are not intensified by activity or accompanied by a pink discharge, and do not consistently become stronger or are not alleviated by changing position.

3. The healthcare provider is providing postpartum care to a client who had a vaginal delivery. Which finding would require further assessment?

• A. Perineal swelling
• B. Moderate lochia serosa
• C. Headache unrelieved by analgesics
• D. Breast engorgement

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A headache unrelieved by analgesics can be a sign of a serious condition such as preeclampsia, which is a life-threatening condition characterized by high blood pressure and often protein in the urine. Prompt assessment and intervention are crucial to prevent complications for both the mother and baby.

4. How would you classify a child at two years of age who has fast breathing without chest indrawing or stridor when calm?

• A. Very severe disease
• B. Pneumonia
• C. No pneumonia
• D. Local infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In pediatric clinical assessment, a child at two years of age with fast breathing but without chest indrawing or stridor when calm is classified as having pneumonia. Fast breathing in this context is a key symptom used in the Integrated Management of Childhood Illness (IMCI) guidelines to diagnose pneumonia in children under five years old. The absence of chest indrawing or stridor when the child is calm helps differentiate this case from other respiratory conditions, making pneumonia the likely classification. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. 'Very severe disease' is too broad and not specific to the symptoms described. 'No pneumonia' is also incorrect as the symptoms match the presentation of pneumonia. 'Local infection' is too vague and does not specifically address the respiratory symptoms observed.

5. What is a non-pharmacological management option for measles?

• A. Tepid sponging
• B. Oral hygiene
• C. Eye care
• D. N/A

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tepid sponging is a non-pharmacological management option for measles. It helps reduce fever and discomfort by using lukewarm water to gently sponge the body. This method is commonly used to alleviate symptoms associated with measles. Oral hygiene and eye care are important for overall health but do not directly manage measles symptoms like tepid sponging does. Choice D, N/A, is incorrect as there are non-pharmacological management options available for measles.

Similar Questions